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#1 Re: Guestbook » Curious about a dog » 2025-05-18 20:03:24

Bob

Rod's username is MathsisFun and that dog is his avatar.  I don't know it's name nor if Rod has it as a pet.

Bob

#3 Re: Help Me ! » Possible 'new knowledge' » 2025-05-14 21:12:04

Bob

Have you tried selling it to a company that wants good encryption?

Bob

#4 Re: Help Me ! » Anyone have an answer for me? » 2025-05-02 22:16:59

Bob

You're welcome.  I enjoyed working it out so you did me a favour by setting the problem.

My 'complete proof' is meant to cover all cases, so if I'm right it does carry on doing this as infinitum.  The problem with proves is, sometimes, they have flaws in them.  Andrew Wiles surprised the mathematical world by coming up with a proof of Fermat's last theorem.  His proof was taken away by other mathematicians for close scrutiny. They did find some points where he had jumped ahead too fast and he went back to the drawing board to clean up the criticisms (which he did!).

The common multiple bit is fairly robust.  Then I had to show the lowest common multiple.  I think it's ok too but maybe others will spot a weakness.  When I was at university we spent a lot of time showing even the most obvious results are generally true so I've had practice.

You have to be careful assuming results just because they work for a few easy numbers. Have a look here:

http://www.mathisfunforum.com/viewtopic.php?id=30690

Another example is the statement N^2 + N + 41 is a prime number generator.  That is if you substitute N = 1, 2, 3 etc
each time you get a prime number.

If you try some N values it look promising. But the statement is FALSE. Can you find a value of N for which it fails?

Has someone already come up with your theorem? Not as far as I know. I tried an internet search and came  up with nothing.  So I suggest you claim it as yours and give it a fancy name.  The history of maths is full of disputed claims (eg. Leibnitz and Newton over calculus) so you'll be in with a select crowd.

But now, can you pull this out of the sphere of 'pure maths' and find a useful application?

Best wishes,

Bob

#5 Re: Introductions » Hello, World! :) » 2025-05-02 04:48:51

Bob

hi Fuzzy Klein

Welcome to the forum!

Is it posible to be a retired musician?  I'm a retired math teacher But I say I'm a math teacher.

Bob

#6 Re: Help Me ! » Anyone have an answer for me? » 2025-05-01 07:09:31

Bob

Odd cases.

I used MS WORD and lots of copy and paste to construct some evidence:

N = 3
123 bar 2 sem12 bar 32 sem1 bar 232 bar sem1232

repeats after 4 bars

N = 5
12345 bar 432 sem12 bar 34543 bar 2 sem1234 bar 5432 sem1 bar 23454 bar 32 sem 123 bar 45432 bar sem12345432

repeats after 8 bars

N = 7
1234567  bar 65432 sem12 bar 3456765 bar 432 sem1234 bar 5676543 bar 2 sem123456 bar 765432 sem1 bar 2345676 bar 5432 sem123 bar 4567654 bar 32 sem12345 bar 6765432 bar sem123456765432

repeats after 12 bars

N = 9
123456789 bar 8765432 sem12 bar 345678987 bar 65432 sem1234 bar 567898765 bar 432 sem123456 bar 789876543 bar 2 sem12345678 bar 98765432 sem1 bar 234567898 bar 765432 sem123 bar 456789876 bar 5432 sem12345 bar 678987654 bar 32 sem1234567 bar 898765432 bar sem1234567898765432

repeats after 16 bars

So the repeat starts after the point where bar and sem occur next to each other .

N = 3  at bar   5
N = 5  at bar   9
N = 7  at bar 13
N = 9  at bar 17

formula 2N - 1 which is what you have stated.

Complete proof:

If N is the bar length then new bars start every N notes.

The 1 to N and back down sequence is always 2N - 2 that's every note twice less once for each end point.

So the bars will start again at every common multiple of N and 2(N-1).  But is that the first? ie Is it the lowest common multiple?

When N is even, no it isn't because N and N-1 have no common factor (except 1) and N is even so it does have a common factor with 2(N-1) namely 2. So the LCM is N(N-1) leading to a repeat bar at N-1 plus 1 ie at N.

When N is odd, N and 2(N-1) have no common factors (except 1) so the reset is at N.2(N-1) and so is after 2(N-1) bars. So the repear bar occurs at 2(N -1) plus 1 ie at 2N -1.

Bob

#7 Re: Help Me ! » Anyone have an answer for me? » 2025-05-01 04:51:18

Bob

Ok thanks. I've got it now. And thanks for the problem.  I went to the gym this afternoon; not because I enjoy it; but to keep fit. So it was great to have something to think about whilst rowing and cycling.

I'll start with the even cases; let's look at n = 8

The notes are 12345678 | 76543212 | 34567876 | and so on.

I'll call these | the bar lines. They occur every 8 notes.  I noticed something important if you leave the bar lines out.

12345678765432 || 12345678765432 || 12345678765432 ||  12345678765432 || .....
There's a sequence that repeats every 14 notes. I've put in lines to split up the sequences. I'll call these lines sem lines for sequence markers.

What you want is for a bar line to coincide with a sem line. (note: 14/2 = 7 and 8 are co-prime ie have only 1 as a common factor )

8 doesn't divide 14, nor 28, nor 42 but it does divide 56.  So after 56 notes the bar and sem lines coincide and the bar count is 7.

In general if n is an even number the repeating sequence is 2n - 2 long.   n and n-1 are coprime so the bar and sem lines coincide after n(n-1) notes.  At that point n-1 bars have occurred so the pattern starts again at the nth bar. This is what you have discovered experimentally.

I haven't fully developed the odd case yet so I'll do some work on that and post again.

Bob

#8 Re: Help Me ! » Anyone have an answer for me? » 2025-04-30 21:32:48

Bob

hi Frank b1

Welcome to the forum.

I'd better start by saying I cannot play a piano.  But we have one in the house and others can play it.

123, 212, 321, 232, 123

I'm not following how each pattern progresses to the next. Why not 312 or even 333 ?

Please would you explain how you are going from one to the next and why 212 follows from 123 for example.

Bob

#9 Re: Help Me ! » Vectors, +/- signs » 2025-04-30 04:54:44

Bob

I'd not come across this apparent/true weight dichotomy. I've always thought of it this way.  If you take a bathroom weighing device with you into the lift and stand on it then what does it record?  If you're in free fall, then the scale shows zero because your weight exerts no downward force on the scale.  It's worth googling "apparent and true weight" and the AI bot gives a good explanation ... that is until it gets to the bit about "fictitious force ".

What I meant was the bathroom scale he'd thoughtfully taken with him shows zero.

Parachute and 'free fall'.  Probably what you say is  correct .  Next time I jump out of an airplane I'll try to remember to take my bathroom scales with me. smile

The air in a lift falls the same as the man so it doesn't rush past his face.

I definitely meant 20 on top of 10 due to gravity.  If the lift shaft is open and quite tall too, and a stone is dropping next to it just under the effects of gravity (I'll disregard any air resistance here as it's small compared with the mass of the stone ... whoops I think I've just mixed units here). then the lift will overtake the stone.

He is still under the influence of gravity but the lift is accelerating faster than him which is why the ceiling catches up with him and gives him a bonk on the head.  Once the downwards reaction of the ceiling can exert a force on him he will start to accelerate at the same rate as the lift.

like a gory episode of The Road Runner?

  But it's well known that cartoon creatures don't obey Newton's laws at all.  When they fall off a cliff they spend a few seconds hanging in the air and only start to drop when they become aware of their predicament

Bob

#10 Re: Help Me ! » Vectors, +/- signs » 2025-04-29 00:02:13

Bob

I find 'man in lift' problems take some thinking about.  I'd like to chat about the general principles before taking on your problem.

If the lift isn't moving then 10 m/s/s is all there is and the reaction upwards opposes -10 x 90 so 900N up.

But reactions are not always up as the following will hopefully show.

Suppose the lift cable breaks and the lift tumbles down with only gravity acting. The man is now in free fall, effectively weightless and he could float off the floor so the reaction of the floor on him is zero.  If we compare with a parachute drop, the wind rush tells us we're falling. In our imaginary lift drop the air moves with the man so he'd have no way of telling that he wasn't able to float.

Now if we imagine a lift that is so powerful it can accelerate downwards at 20 m/s/s. The lift would drop faster than the man because he's already floating up, until he bangs his head on the ceiling. The reaction of the ceiling on him is definitely downwards.

But how much?  He is trying to fall at 10 m/s/s but the lift is pushing him at 20.  Effectively the force on him is 90 x (20-10) downwards.  So you need to subtract the lift's acceleration from gravity to determine the effective acceleration in the frame of reference.  It's like the moving train frames of reference.  If you 'bring the lift to rest' by applying an upwards acceleration of 2 m/s/s the gravity is similarly given that upwards acceleration so -10 + 2 = -8 m/s/s.

So I think the reaction (upwards) is ( 10 - 2 ) x 90 N

In really fast lifts you will notice the effect as your internal organs rise up inside your body.  Many years ago I stayed in the Luxor hotel in Vegas. The hotel is in the shape of a square based pyramid and the lift shafts follow the sloping line so not ony do you notice the stomach effect but also you tend to sway inwards because the motion is no longer just up/down but includes a sideways component. Really strange dizzy but then it was Vegas.

Bob

#11 Re: Science HQ » Inertia » 2025-04-28 19:36:59

Bob

I tried again to research this. Mathsword doesn't list inertia. Wolfram Alpha didn't recognise my question.

I googled "Is inertia the same as mass "

The google AI bot had this to say:

No, inertia is not the same as mass, but mass is a measure of inertia.

Mass is a fundamental property of matter that quantifies the amount of material in an object.
It is measured in kilograms (kg).

Inertia is the resistance of an object to changes in its state of motion. An object with more mass has more inertia, meaning it takes more force to change its velocity (speed or direction).

Mass is the measure of an object's inertia. A larger mass means a greater resistance to changes in motion, which is the essence of inertia.

Generative AI is experimental.

I then tried "does inertia depend on velocity"

google AI wrote:

Inertia, which is an object's resistance to changes in its state of motion, does not depend on velocity. Inertia is a property of an object determined solely by its mass. While velocity does play a role in how an object resists changes in motion through momentum, inertia itself is independent of how fast an object is moving.

Bob

#12 Re: Science HQ » Inertia » 2025-04-27 23:58:16

Bob
chatgpt wrote:

increasing velocity alters that tendency,

Wrong! It doesn't. The bot is confusing actual velocity with how much we want to alter the velocity.  It takes more effort if we want to alter velocity a lot, but Newton's law just says velocity stays constant until we apply an external force.  The amount of force determines how much the velocity changes but the start velocity is irrelevant.  That's why we have frames of reference; otherwise we've got to take account of all the possible velocities (orbits, movement of galaxies etc.)

It takes the same force to change velocity from say 10 m/s to 5 m/s whether the start velocity is 10 m/s or 10 million m/s.

Conclusion: Don't trust bots to tell you anything.

Bob

#13 Re: Help Me ! » Sum of infinite series..... » 2025-04-26 20:46:41

Bob

hi ktesla39

Using the email you registered with, my PA, Matty, has sent you a message. Did you spot it?

Bob

#14 Re: Puzzles and Games » Add 13 more and post it forever. » 2025-04-26 20:44:08

Bob

hi polarisgleam

Welcome to the forum.

If you look back through this thread you'll see that it's not just a case of adding 13. That's too easy for this forum.  Members try to find a calculation (the more interesting, the better) to make the next number.

Such as 2 x 2 x 7 x 13 x 83 = 30212.

Bob

#15 Re: Science HQ » Inertia » 2025-04-26 00:16:42

Bob

Yes, that looks good.

B

#16 Re: Science HQ » Inertia » 2025-04-24 05:24:33

Bob

It has to be like that because of all the other motions that we're all involved in.  eg. the Earth is hurtling through space (could estimate the speed but hopefully my point stands without that).  If you had to stop that speed too you'd need a lot of force just to take the dog for a walk!

Bob

#17 Re: Help Me ! » Sum of infinite series..... » 2025-04-23 20:15:06

Bob

So write out this expansion for n = 1 n=2 ...  n and sum them

The two cube sums have most terms in common so these can be cancelled. Also substitute the formula for the sum of n numbers

times by 2 to remove the fraction and expand the terms

Rearrange to make 6 times the required sum come onto the LHS and simplify the RHS

so the formula is:

Bob

#18 Re: Help Me ! » Sum of infinite series..... » 2025-04-23 04:34:11

Bob

There is a formula for the sum of n terms.  The sum to infinity will be infinite so the formula for that is

Do you know the finite sum formula? Would you like me to derive it?

Bob

#19 Re: Science HQ » Inertia » 2025-04-22 01:32:46

Bob

No. In that frame it is stopped so no force is needed.

Bob

#20 Re: Maths Is Fun - Suggestions and Comments » A new form…or way to reply. » 2025-04-22 01:19:37

Bob

I did! That looks very good.  I cannot install code; only MIF can do that.  Try emailing him at funmath@gmail.com

Bob

#21 Re: Coder's Corner » BBcode Practice » 2025-04-22 01:14:38

Bob

I rarely try to memorise thngs.  Sometimes they stick through repetition.

Bob

#22 Re: Science HQ » Inertia » 2025-04-20 23:37:08

Bob

That's exactly what I meant.

Bob

#23 Re: Help Me ! » Proportional that doesn't reduce the lowest values » 2025-04-20 04:48:36

Bob

Please would you post the original assignment


Bob

#24 Re: Help Me ! » Proportional that doesn't reduce the lowest values » 2025-04-19 01:49:58

Bob

I've made up some constraints to illustrate what I mean.

I'll define a large order as amount > 600
Medium as 250< amount < 600 including these endpoints
And small as amount < 250

If everything were to be reduced in the same proportion
then k = target amount / actual amount

But we want k for small to be 1, k for large to be sufficient to reach a total of 3000  and k for medium to be less than k for large.

I'll make k for medium to be 60 % of k for large.

This gives me a way to calculate k for large

The total for new large plus new medium is 3000 -200-50

So L.k + M - M(1-k)x0.6 = 2750

Rearranging k = (2750 - 0.4 x 500)/(4400 + 0.6x500)
= 0.54255...

Using this the new values are
1898,  488,  362,  200,  50 giving a total of 2998.

This is because I've rounded every calculation down.

So apply WHILE total < 3000 medium = old medium + 1 so this loops until 3000 is reached.

Bob

#25 Re: Help Me ! » Proportional that doesn't reduce the lowest values » 2025-04-18 23:57:52

Bob

What's missing is an exact definition of large  medium and small. Then a rule for medium reduction, say 60% of the large reduction.

I doubt C would have a specific routine for this as its too unusual. But a suitable formula could be made. I'd need the answers to the above questions


Bob

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