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**kylekatarn****Member**- Registered: 2005-07-24
- Posts: 445

Prove that if

converges to infinity then*Last edited by kylekatarn (2005-11-05 10:14:07)*

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**krassi_holmz****Real Member**- Registered: 2005-12-02
- Posts: 1,908

I'm not sure, but I think:

So

*Last edited by krassi_holmz (2005-12-29 06:36:47)*

IPBLE: Increasing Performance By Lowering Expectations.

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**Ricky****Moderator**- Registered: 2005-12-04
- Posts: 3,791

krassi_holmz wrote:

I'm not sure, but I think:

=> =>

So

Let:

Then:

But:

Not 0.

In short,

does not always equal 0, although it certainly can.*Last edited by Ricky (2006-01-02 07:06:39)*

"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."

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**krassi_holmz****Real Member**- Registered: 2005-12-02
- Posts: 1,908

I understand. I was not right. Here's another way, I think:

That must be right:

, because u_n coverages to infty.

Let u_n = k. Then

*Last edited by krassi_holmz (2006-01-02 12:01:33)*

IPBLE: Increasing Performance By Lowering Expectations.

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