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#1 2005-11-05 10:12:09

kylekatarn
Member
Registered: 2005-07-24
Posts: 445

Prove this.

Prove that if

converges to infinity then

Last edited by kylekatarn (2005-11-05 10:14:07)

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#2 2005-12-29 06:32:48

krassi_holmz
Real Member
Registered: 2005-12-02
Posts: 1,908

Re: Prove this.

I'm not sure, but I think:

=>
=>

So

Last edited by krassi_holmz (2005-12-29 06:36:47)


IPBLE:  Increasing Performance By Lowering Expectations.

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#3 2006-01-02 07:03:43

Ricky
Moderator
Registered: 2005-12-04
Posts: 3,791

Re: Prove this.

krassi_holmz wrote:

I'm not sure, but I think:

=>
=>

So

Let:

Then:

But:

Not 0.

In short,

does not always equal 0, although it certainly can.

Last edited by Ricky (2006-01-02 07:06:39)


"In the real world, this would be a problem.  But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist.  So we'll go ahead and do that now..."

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#4 2006-01-02 11:51:56

krassi_holmz
Real Member
Registered: 2005-12-02
Posts: 1,908

Re: Prove this.

I understand. I was not right. Here's another way, I think:
That must be right:

, so
, because u_n coverages to infty.
Let u_n = k. Then

Last edited by krassi_holmz (2006-01-02 12:01:33)


IPBLE:  Increasing Performance By Lowering Expectations.

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