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#1 2005-11-06 09:12:09
- kylekatarn
- Power Member
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Prove this.
Prove that if
converges to infinity thenLast edited by kylekatarn (2005-11-06 09:14:07)
#2 2005-12-30 05:32:48
- krassi_holmz
- Real Member
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Re: Prove this.
I'm not sure, but I think:
So
Last edited by krassi_holmz (2005-12-30 05:36:47)
IPBLE: Increasing Performance By Lowering Expectations.
#3 2006-01-03 06:03:43
- Ricky
- Moderator
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Re: Prove this.
krassi_holmz wrote:
I'm not sure, but I think:
=> =>
So
Let:
Then:
But:
Not 0.
In short, does not always equal 0, although it certainly can.
Last edited by Ricky (2006-01-03 06:06:39)
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."
#4 2006-01-03 10:51:56
- krassi_holmz
- Real Member
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Re: Prove this.
I understand. I was not right. Here's another way, I think:
That must be right:
, because u_n coverages to infty.
Let u_n = k. Then
Last edited by krassi_holmz (2006-01-03 11:01:33)
IPBLE: Increasing Performance By Lowering Expectations.