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**BarandaMan****Guest**

Why does

((Pt)^(n-1))((Pi)^(1-n)) EQUAL the term ((Pi/Pt)^(1-n))? Apparantly these two are equivalent? I am not good at rearranging / how to change the signs on powers etc, can someone explain?

Thanks

**muxdemux****Member**- Registered: 2012-12-23
- Posts: 80

I just wrote

then did a bunch of algebra. Some things to remember while working it out:

and

Good luck!

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**BarandaMan****Guest**

muxdemux wrote:

I just wrote

then did a bunch of algebra. Some things to remember while working it out:

andGood luck!

Thank you! So based on the first rule you said, then (Pi/Pt)^(1-n) = (Pi^(1-n)(Pt)^(1-n)...which isn't the answer. Can you help??

**muxdemux****Member**- Registered: 2012-12-23
- Posts: 80

That's a start! Once you've got that, you should divide both sides by

Notice that

and you should be able to use that second rule I gave you.

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