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**TheTick****Member**- Registered: 2012-12-03
- Posts: 27

Say you have identical sheets of paper, and you take one sheet and make a random crease in that sheet of paper, what is the probability that if someone else folds a random crease in one of the other sheets that it will be the exact same crease. I figured it would be 1/infinity, but what If the second person was allowed to make 5 random creases in the second sheet what would the probability that 1 of those creases was identical to the original crease... 5/infinity?

If so what is the difference between 1/infinity and 5/infinity?

Spooooon!!!

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**bob bundy****Moderator**- Registered: 2010-06-20
- Posts: 6,645

In practice, creases are not infinitely thin so I think the probabliity is not 1/∞, but rather some very small fraction that depends on the paper etc.

But if you were right about the 1/∞ and 5/∞ , these are both zero.

(There have been many arguments about infinity related topics on MathIsFun, so you may have accidentally set them off again.)

Bob

You cannot teach a man anything; you can only help him find it within himself..........Galileo Galilei

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**anonimnystefy****Real Member**- From: The Foundation
- Registered: 2011-05-23
- Posts: 15,786

Yes, both probabilities are zero.

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