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**TheTick****Member**- Registered: 2012-12-03
- Posts: 27

Say you have identical sheets of paper, and you take one sheet and make a random crease in that sheet of paper, what is the probability that if someone else folds a random crease in one of the other sheets that it will be the exact same crease. I figured it would be 1/infinity, but what If the second person was allowed to make 5 random creases in the second sheet what would the probability that 1 of those creases was identical to the original crease... 5/infinity?

If so what is the difference between 1/infinity and 5/infinity?

Spooooon!!!

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**bob bundy****Moderator**- Registered: 2010-06-20
- Posts: 7,613

In practice, creases are not infinitely thin so I think the probabliity is not 1/∞, but rather some very small fraction that depends on the paper etc.

But if you were right about the 1/∞ and 5/∞ , these are both zero.

(There have been many arguments about infinity related topics on MathIsFun, so you may have accidentally set them off again.)

Bob

Children are not defined by school ...........The Fonz

You cannot teach a man anything; you can only help him find it within himself..........Galileo Galilei

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**anonimnystefy****Real Member**- From: Harlan's World
- Registered: 2011-05-23
- Posts: 16,015

Yes, both probabilities are zero.

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Taking a new step, uttering a new word, is what people fear most. ― Fyodor Dostoyevsky, Crime and Punishment

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