You are not logged in.
Pages: 1
Is this an acceptable proof? I have a feeling it is flawed somehow.
Let
. Prove that:For n = 1, we have
, which is true.We make the assumption that:
forTaking n = k,
Multiplying both sides by k+1,
Since
, we can divide them out and we are left with, which is true.Thus the proposition is true, QED
Last edited by Identity (2007-12-15 16:27:24)
Offline
You are forgetting that you must show
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."
Offline
Yep, it looks like you tried to prove the induction step backwards. You started with an assumption for k and tried to move forward to the k+1 step. You're supposed to start with the k+1 step and then work your way backwards until you can use your assumption for k to prove your inequality. What you need to do is take what Ricky posted and simplify it until you can use your assumption of k to prove the induction.
Wrap it in bacon
Offline
Last edited by JaneFairfax (2007-12-17 03:10:47)
Offline
Pages: 1