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#402 Re: Dark Discussions at Cafe Infinity » Colored Horses » 2013-05-02 00:38:52

The flaw in the argument is that the inductive step assumes n ≥ 2. In order to remove one horse from a set of n horses and still have at least one horse left over*, you clearly must have n ≥ 2.

You have shown that the statement S is true for n = 1. You have not shown that it’s true for n = 2. In order for the inductive proof to work, you must show that S is true for n = 2 as well – which you can’t because S isn’t true for n = 2.


*The inductive argument compares the colour of Horse #1 and of Horse #k+1 with the colour of the intermediate horses #2, …, #k. The inductive proof assumes that there is at least one intermediate horse.

#411 Re: This is Cool » Sexy primes » 2013-04-28 06:29:25

Agnishom wrote:

Is 6 the smallest possible common difference in AP of more than three primes?

Is such a sequence possible?

#413 Re: Help Me ! » Number Theory Problems » 2013-04-28 06:00:37

Agnishom wrote:

1.For how many odd positive integers n<1000 does the number of positive divisors of n divide n?

As bobbym pointed out, n must be a perfect square. n=1 is one possibility. For the others, it can be easily checked that all odd perfect squares greater than 1 and less than 1000 are have at most two distinct prime factors in their factorization. Thus the possibilities for n>1 are:

where p and q are distinct primes and a, b positive integers.

First case:

The number of positive divisors of n are

– i.e. there are
positive divisors. So the possibilites are
and
. (Not
; that would make n too large.)

Second case:

There are only two such

possible, namely
and
. The number of positive divisors for each number is 9, which does divide each number.


Therefore the answer to your question is: There are 5 odd numbers less than 1000 which are divisible by their number of positive divisors, namely 1, 9, 225, 441, and 625.

#416 Re: Help Me ! » Quadratic Polynomial and its Factors » 2013-04-26 13:44:10

You mean
is a factor. Hint:

If you let

and
then
and
.

#418 Re: Help Me ! » odds question » 2013-04-25 01:39:31

You’re right, it looks confusing. eek

#419 Re: Help Me ! » odds question » 2013-04-25 01:20:35

In what sense “more than”?

If an odds give you more returs when you win, we say the odds are longer; otherwise they are shorter. The longer the odds on a horse, the less probability it has of winning.

I think it’s better to avoid the terms “greater/more than” or “less than” to avoid confusion. Thus we say that the odds of 7/5 are longer than those of 1/2 (2/1 on).

#420 Re: Help Me ! » odds question » 2013-04-25 00:40:05

I think you’re confusing the terms “greater” and “less”. A horse that has a low probability of winning would have longer odds giving you higher returns if you win, whereas the favourite (the one with the highest probability of winning) would have the shortest odds meaning your returns if you win are the smallest. In other words, greater chance of winning = lesser returns if you win, lesser chance of winning = greater returns if you win.

#421 Re: Help Me ! » odds question » 2013-04-25 00:26:37

phatus wrote:

what odds are more than 1/2?

For example is 2/3 more? What about 7/5?

1/2 means if you bet £1 and you win, you receive £1.50 (1/2 × £1 = £0.50 plus £1 stake).

1/2 is read as “2 to 1 on”.

For 2/3, £3 wins £2 plus £3 = £5. If you had staked the £3 on the 1/2 above however you would have got £1.5 + £3 = £4.5. Therefore 2/3 is a longer odds than 1/2 (it pays out more if you win).

And 7/5 is definitely longer than 1/2 (it’s “greater” than 1/1 whereas 1/2 is “less” than 1/1).


bobbym wrote:

Using the fraction notation is not correct.

Why is it not correct? Most bookmakers here use fraction notation.


phatus wrote:

So if i bet £1 at 1:2 i would get a £1.50 return if the bet won. The original bet plus 50%. I don't understand what they mean by odds greater than 1:2.

Think of it this way. If you bet £x you will earn £1.5x if you win. Now stake the same amount (£x) on the odds you’re looking at. If your earnings are more than £1.5x, then those odds are longer than 1/2. Otherwise they are shorter.


bobbym wrote:

Yes but you are phrasing it in a very unorthodox fashion.

No, he’s phrasing it in a way I understand very well. smile

#422 Re: Puzzles and Games » Nehushtan’s challenge problems » 2013-04-24 10:36:57

Right, I’ll set a simpler question this time. roll




#423 Re: Help Me ! » Regular concave polygons » 2013-04-21 02:57:10

anna_gg wrote:

This was also my solution but it seems there is a polygon with fewer sides that meets the criteria.

Why, of course! A concave decagon.

ConcaveDecagon.png

NB: I think I’ve proved that a regular concave polygon (i.e. a polygon with equal sides and internal angles either θ or 360°−θ, at least one of which is reflex) must have at least 9 sides. If my proof is correct, it remains to check whether there exists any regular concave nonagon.

#424 Re: Help Me ! » Regular concave polygons » 2013-04-20 04:09:23

anna_gg wrote:

What is the regular concave polygon with the smallest number of sides?
All its sides must be equal and all its internal or external angles must be equal as well (i.e. all its internal angles must be either equal or negative, that is, either θ or -θ).

I think it’s a concave dodecagon

ConcaveDodecagon.png

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