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Shenanigans! I declare Shenanigans! This was a history quiz, not a math quiz.
And being so, I got 5 right...
Pretty interesting stuff though.
A)
Proof:
Since f is a function, for every element a∈A, there exists a b∈B, such that f(a) = b. Since f is injective, this b is unique.
Thus, |A| ≤ |B|. Now let's consider the image, f-¹.
Since f is not onto, for every b, there may or may not exist an a∈A such that f-¹(b) = a. Consider the two cases:
Case 1: a exists. If a was not unique, then f(a0) = b and f(a1) = b where a0 ≠ a1. If this were true, f would not be 1-1. But f is 1-1. Thus, contradiction, a is unique. So for every element b in B, if there exists an a, then there exists one and only one a.
Case 2: a does not exist. Then b can not be in the domain of f-¹, because if it was, f-¹ wouldn't be a function.
So for every a∈A, f maps a to a unique b, and for every b∈Im f, Im f maps b to a unique a.
∴ |A| = |Im f|. QED.
The other two are quite similar. Try to post something up here, even if it's sketch work, and I'll help you out.
This isn't a formal proof, but more like what you need to be thinking during your proof:
A) If f is injective, then for every element in Im f (the range), there must be one and only one path to get back to f. All the elements that don't have path (since you don't know that f is onto) you ignore, otherwise the Im f wouldn't even be a function.
B) Yes, for pretty much the same reasons. Remember, two elements in Im f can't go to the same element in A, because then f wouldn't even be a function, as it wouldn't be well defined.
C) You know that every element in A corresponds to a unique element in B, so at the very least, |A| = |B|. But there could be some elements in B which don't have an inverse (it's not guarunteed to be onto), so there may be more elements in B.
Maybe you can just ignore that post all together...
So I wrote my own sin function, like I described, and a hash table, but it seems to be about 10-15 times as slow as the function included in the C library (which are the same ones that you use in C++).
I see no way to optimize my solution unless you take out the function call (which might give it large overhead). This makes me really curious about how the trig functions actually work...
Cx = Ax + 50 cos(arctan(slope))
Cy = Ay + 50 sin(arctan(slope))
Haven't really check to see if these are the right answers, I'm just going to assume they are. Oh, and if speed of your program doesn't matter, none of the below will...
sin and cos are normally very slow functions (depending on how your compiler implements them). Always try to avoid using them if possible. But, if you have to use them, heres how:
Using sin and arctan functions in whatever language your using, generate a file that just lists these values of certain numbers. If you were doing it in C++, it would be:
for (x = 0; x < 2*PI; x+=PI/720.0)
{
o << sin(x) << endl;
}
Now generate that file for whatever trig functions you are using. Then, in the beginning of your program, you load up these data values into a hash table. From this, you can then approximate each trig function in O(1) time, which means constant time, the fastest you can get. I picked the value PI/720. This will generate a fairly small file (1440 lines). You can use higher values such as PI/1000 or even PI/2000, and you will get a very close approximation. With 2000, that will probably be as close an approximation as just sin(x) is.
The downside of using larger variable is that it uses more hard drive space (the file) and it uses more RAM (the hash table).
Edit: If you wish to do this, but got lost in my mumbo jumbo, just say so. I'm going to be doing this very soon for a project of my own (Pool, aka billards), so I might as well do it now.
If you ever want to hear the best one liners, you have to listen to Steven Wright:
A lot of people are afraid of heights. Not me, I'm afraid of widths.
After they make styrofoam, what do they ship it in?
Ever notice how irons have a setting for PERMANENT press? I don't get it...
I bought a house, on a one-way dead-end road; I don't know how I got there.
How young can you die of old age?
For my birthday I got a humidifier and a de-humidifier...I put them in the same room and let them fight it out...
I filled the humidifier with wax and left it on. Now everything in my house is shiny.
You can find more at http://en.wikiquote.org/wiki/Steven_Wright
anyarules, Ricky gave the clues. I shall give the answers.
I just did that because I know that ganesh is clueless.
By mathimatical law, you can only say QED when you start out with "Pf" or "Proof". But we'll let you go with a warning this time.
Nah, you got it. And at the time of writing, it was the only one, so it's true with respect to its timeframe.
Give me till tuesday, I think I'm close, but I have a test in Advanced Calc and Modern Algebra that I got to get through first on monday.
Cancle out the n's in the numerator and denominator.
1 + 1 =3, for sufficiently large one's.
From pythagorean thm.
t) 1 TLA (referring to in this thread)
x ≡ y out loud is "x is equivalent to y". What does equivalent mean? Depends on where you see it.
Two things are equivalent if they share the same property. The one who writes it must define the property that they are talking about.
For example, if I wish to talk about even and odd integers, 2 ≡ 4 because they are both even, 3 ≡ 5 because they are both odd, but 2 <≡> 5. (I just made up <≡>, because <> means not equal, and it looks pretty nice).
Or we could use it in terms of names that start off with the same letter:
Ryan ≡ Robert
Mark <≡> Ben
c) 360 DIAC
Degress in a circle
e) 12 DOC
Days Of Christmas
i) 3 SOAT
Sides of a triangle
1. /3, *5, /3, *5...
2. +6, +8, +10, +12, ....
3. +9, +7, +5, +3, +1
[referring to the title of this topic]
Hi, hello, and welcome to the department of redundancy department. How may I assist in helping you?
Sorry, couldn't resist posting that any longer.
Theres a command I never heard of...
Thanks ryos.
I have the induction proof written up on paper, but I'm a bit too lazy to type it all up now. Maybe later tonight.
If what you copied is straight from your book, that's the weirdest defintion for integration by parts I've ever seen.
Here's one that should be more clear:
From this, it should be clear that you must first divide up your function into two parts, u and dv, then solve for v and du, and finally just plug it all back in.
k+90's formula is:
Anybody want to try their hand at an induction proof, or should I?
Then imagine you attach a km of cable pointing towards the earth - the satellite's center of gravity will change, so you also put some cable pointing away from earth with enough weight on it to bring the center of gravity back again.
Problem with this is that the side going towards earth is under much stronger gravitational forces than the side away from earth. So you have to have an extremely massive thing on the side away.
The problem only gets worse as you get closer and closer to earth.
Satillites can have rockets. Rockets can fire away from earth.
If your computer wasn't working, I would seriously be freaking out right now.
Yep. The syntax is a bit weird becaue there is no mathimatical equivalent (that I know of). The only thing close is:
a = x mod n
Where x would be the result from a % n.
% returns the remainder of division:
5 % 2 = 1
10 % 3 = 1
100 % 10 = 0
5 % 5 = 0
22 % 4 = 2
If you wish to see whether n goes into a (n divides a), you would do:
if (a % n == 0)