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I agree with what you say in post #2. Well, nobodys perfect. I suppose an American comedy show could similarly make a humorous sketch on the rudeness of, say, British tourists in America, and then everybody can have a good laugh too.
If someone uses a disclaimer can they now act like a jerk?
Perhaps, but I dont see how the video is being a jerk. You should watch HIGNFY there are loads more scenes like the one in the video, all intended to be funny rather than offensive. Besides, its been running for almost 20 years now surely something that long-runnning cant possibly be jerk.
Yes, but would you agree that the clip itself is hilarious?
In any case
This clip is meant as humour. No offence to any person or group is intended.
Have I Got News For You is meant to be a funny comedy show. Lighten up, dude!
Welcome, bkrKimo.
Thanks.
Never mind, forget what I said. Sorry.
This is one of those arithmeticgeometric hybrid series.
Plancks radiation law
[align=center]
[/align]From this, both Stefans law (which states that the intensity of the radiation of a black body is proportional to the 4[sup]th[/sup] power of its absolute temperature) and Wiens displacement law (which states that the maximum wavelength of the radiation of a black body is inversely proportional to its absolute temperature) can be derived.
To derive Stefans law, hold
constant and evaluate . For Wiens displacement law, set .I think this question is suitable for final-year GCSE or first-year A-level students.
Which leaves 4, 6 and 8. As
does not have any cyclic subgroup of order 6 (if it did it would have to have either a 6-cycle or a disjoint product of a 2-cycle and a 3-cycle, neither of which is possible) all subgroups of order 6 are thus isomorphic (to ). As for 8, notice that . Hence every subgroup of order 8 is a Sylow 2-subgroup; therefore all subgroups of order 8 are conjugate and therefore isomorphic (to the dihedral group ). has two nonisomorphic subgroups of order 4, namely (cyclic) and (the Klein Viergruppe).I always thought using calculus to tackle these kinds of inequalities is a bit of a brute-force tactic. Much like using the JordanHölder theorem in group theory to prove the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, if you know what I mean.
But of course, if calculus works, then there is no reason not to use it, if you know how. Nice work!
I think what you meant was that a constant function is neither strictly increasing nor strictly decreasing.
Well, arent constant functions just fascinating? They are both increasing and decreasing, yet neither strictly increasing nor strictly decreasing. Amazing how we take so many things for granted, only to find, on closer inspection, that we have been mistaken all along.
Quite easy, as it turns out.
In fact, as you can see, the inequality is strict.
So far so good.
Wow, they sure look nasty! (At first sight, at any rate.)
According to the definition, a function y=f(x) is increasing iff
when x1 < x2 then f(x1) ≤ f(x2)
Hence, if y=f(x) is non-increasing, then there exist x1 < x2 such that f(x1) > f(x2). But a constant function cannot possibly have f(x1) > f(x2). Therefore a constant function cannot be non-increasing.
By a similar argument a constant function cannot be non-decreasing either. Therefore it must be both increasing and decreasing.
About constant functions
A Constant Function neither increases nor decreases:
You realize that this is wrong? In fact, a Constant Function is both increasing and decreasing (but not strictly) along its whole domain.
Think about it.
A problem similar to mine can be found here.
Are we allowed to express the LHS of the inequality as a Taylor series? If so, the problem becomes trivial.
Thats how I would do it.
The inequality holds for
as well, in which case the method will not be trivial for .And note that there is an apostrophe in Thats.