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#1 2007-12-08 07:03:36
- Daniel123
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- Registered: 2007-05-23
- Posts: 663
hmm
If the magnitude of friction acting on a particle is greater than the force pulling it down a slope, will it move in the direction the friction is acting?
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#2 2007-12-08 07:41:21
- 100'
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- Registered: 2007-12-06
- Posts: 8
Re: hmm
Friction always opposes motion by definition so will never be greater than the force acting on it...
F ≤ mu x R where mu is the coefficient of friction between the slope and the object and R is the reaction force based on the weight of the object.
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#3 2007-12-08 08:20:40
- mathsyperson
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- Registered: 2005-06-22
- Posts: 4,900
Re: hmm
To be ultra-specific, that equation tells what the maximum friction can be.
If the force on an object is less than that, then the friction will match it and the object won't move.
Why did the vector cross the road?
It wanted to be normal.
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#4 2007-12-08 11:04:27
- Daniel123
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- Registered: 2007-05-23
- Posts: 663
Re: hmm
Aah right, so the object will be in equilibrium until the force pulling the particle exceeds the maximum friction?
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#5 2007-12-08 11:45:33
- mathsyperson
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- Registered: 2005-06-22
- Posts: 4,900
Re: hmm
Exactly. And after that, the friction will oppose the force as much as it can.
Why did the vector cross the road?
It wanted to be normal.
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