You are not logged in.
Let
be a finite collection of sets in a metric space and setThen the closure of
, namely , satisfiesThe union of the closures of A_i's being a subset of the closure of B is easy to show. However, the reverse direction is tripping me up a bit. Here's how I argued it:
Assume
i.e., for any neighborhood
of , we haveTherefore, for any neighborhood
of , there is an integer , , such thatHence, there is an integer
, , such thatTherefore,
Hence,
Is this argument fallacious? I ask, because I can't see where the finite part of the union comes into play. It seems like I could use this exact same argument to say the result holds in the countable case too, but there is an obvious counterexample to that:
Namely, setting
to the set of the rational numbers and each to the singleton set where (since is countable).Then the closure of each
is just the set , since each is just the singleton ., the set of real numbers, whileHence, the two sides are not equal.
Can someone show me where this first argument above was going bad? Thanks.
Last edited by betterthangauss (2009-11-10 22:00:46)
Offline
Let me just post images instead, so that it's easier to read:
QUESTION
MY ANSWER
NOTE: By J_n I mean the set
Last edited by betterthangauss (2009-11-10 22:25:41)
Offline
The order of quantifiers is important.
Therefore, for any neighborhood of , there is an integer , , such that
Offline
The order of quantifiers is important.
betterthangauss wrote:
Therefore, for any neighborhood of , there is an integer , , such that
This is true but the value of many depend of the neighbourhood .
What you want to show is the there exists an integer such that for any neighbourhood of of
Thanks. After taking a second look at the problem I saw a really easy way to prove it. Namely:
Note that
Therefore, since
is the smallest closed set containing , we haveThanks again for showing me my error.
Offline