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let
prove that:
I don't get it. I get 2 for all of them!
Also, I notice this function defines f(x,y) = 0 if x or y = 0, but since we're dealing with limits approaching zero, don't we not really need to know what happens at exactly 0?
Last edited by mikau (2008-09-22 14:22:47)
A logarithm is just a misspelled algorithm.
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I think you're getting 2 by thinking of
.This is different though. As x approaches 0, sin x oscillates more and more rapidly and doesn't have a limit. However, as it's a sine function, it's bounded by ±1 and so x sin(1/x) will be bounded by ± x.
x going to 0 therefore means that the limit is 0.
You're right that we don't need to know what happens exactly at 0, I'm guessing the book (or who/whatever set the question) just wanted the function to be well-defined for all reals.
(Also I'd have thought that those iterated limits do exist, so I can't help you there. )
Why did the vector cross the road?
It wanted to be normal.
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I agree mathsyperson, they do exist. If we had:
Then they both wouldn't... but neither would the limit (x, y) -> (0,0)
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."
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