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Help!!!
Suppose that n+1 urns are numbered 0 through n, and the ith urn
contains i red balls and n-i white balls, 0<= i <= n. An urn is
selected at random, and then the balls it contains are removed one by
one, at random, and with replacement.
(a) If the first m balls are all red, what is the probability that the
(m+1)st ball is also red?
(b) Show that, as n approaches infinity, the probability in (a)
approaches (m+1/m+2)
letter (a) should have some sort of summation and letter (b) should use integrals. help?
(a) Since you are doing "replacement" or "putting the ball back in"
each time. Then the answer is 50%.
The first m balls all red means nothing.
igloo myrtilles fourmis
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On second thought, the probability probably keeps rising
higher and higher that red will continue, but I'm not
sure how to do it.
igloo myrtilles fourmis
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