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I need to use Dirichlet's test to show
infinity
∑ (sin(n))/n converges
n=1
Would 1/n work for bn? And how shall I go about solving this.
Last edited by woodoo (2007-02-10 21:55:43)
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You want a_n = 1/n, if you go by the variable names on Wikipedia.
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."
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Are you sure an isn't (sin(n))/n ?
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∞
∑(1/n) does not
1
X'(y-Xβ)=0
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You want a_n to be a monotonely decreasing function bounded below by 0. You want b_n to be bounded. 1/n fits the requirements for a, sin(n) fits the requirements for b.
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."
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