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#1 2006-08-19 10:58:48

Ricky
Moderator
Registered: 2005-12-04
Posts: 3,791

Prove d | n, then phi(d) divides phi(n)

Where phi is the Euler phi function.  I want someone to check if this is valid, and then shoot me if it isn't.









"In the real world, this would be a problem.  But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist.  So we'll go ahead and do that now..."

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