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#1 2006-08-20 08:58:48
- Ricky
- Moderator
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Prove d | n, then phi(d) divides phi(n)
Where phi is the Euler phi function. I want someone to check if this is valid, and then shoot me if it isn't.
"In the real world, this would be a problem. But in mathematics, we can just define a place where this problem doesn't exist. So we'll go ahead and do that now..."