Discussion about math, puzzles, games and fun. Useful symbols: ÷ × ½ √ ∞ ≠ ≤ ≥ ≈ ⇒ ± ∈ Δ θ ∴ ∑ ∫ • π ƒ ¹ ² ³ °
 

You are not logged in. #1 20131009 11:40:13
phicould someone give me a step by step solution. I figured out was which are odd numbers. I am not sure if i could do the same to this and divide it by 3. Last edited by cooljackiec (20131009 11:40:28) I see you have graph paper. You must be plotting something #2 20131009 11:59:36
Re: phiHi The limit operator is just an excuse for doing something you know you can't. “It's the subject that nobody knows anything about that we can all talk about!” ― Richard Feynman “Taking a new step, uttering a new word, is what people fear most.” ― Fyodor Dostoyevsky, Crime and Punishment #3 20131009 14:40:44
Re: phihow would you prove that? by induction? I see you have graph paper. You must be plotting something #4 20131009 17:02:20
Re: phiNot exactly. I'd prove it using your idea. 1/p of the first p^n nunbers are not relatively prime to p^n and the rest is, so phi(p^n)=p^n(1/p)*p^n=p^np^(n1). The limit operator is just an excuse for doing something you know you can't. “It's the subject that nobody knows anything about that we can all talk about!” ― Richard Feynman “Taking a new step, uttering a new word, is what people fear most.” ― Fyodor Dostoyevsky, Crime and Punishment 