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**mitu****Guest**

what is the limit of (-1)^(1/n) when n tends to infinity? does it exist?

**anonimnystefy****Real Member**- From: The Foundation
- Registered: 2011-05-23
- Posts: 15,918

I would say it is either 1 or non-existent...

Here lies the reader who will never open this book. He is forever dead.

Taking a new step, uttering a new word, is what people fear most. ― Fyodor Dostoyevsky, Crime and Punishment

The knowledge of some things as a function of age is a delta function.

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**Fistfiz****Member**- Registered: 2012-07-20
- Posts: 33

hi mitu, I would say it does not exist if your succession is from N to R;

here's a short proof of non-existence:

if LIM[a(n)]=L, then for all a(n(k)) LIM[a(n(k))]=L

you see that LIM[a(2k)]!=L since a(2k) is not defined for each k. But maybe someone would argue that for each n in dom(a(n)) a(n)=-1, so LIMa(n)=-1... i see it just as a formal problem, maybe someone can be more precise.

While writing my post i realized that if your succession is from N to C it is not even a function, so i don't know if it has any meaning to talk about limit...

30+2=28 (Mom's identity)

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**anonimnystefy****Real Member**- From: The Foundation
- Registered: 2011-05-23
- Posts: 15,918

What do you mean by a succession from N to C?

Here lies the reader who will never open this book. He is forever dead.

Taking a new step, uttering a new word, is what people fear most. ― Fyodor Dostoyevsky, Crime and Punishment

The knowledge of some things as a function of age is a delta function.

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**Fistfiz****Member**- Registered: 2012-07-20
- Posts: 33

anonimnystefy wrote:

What do you mean by a succession from N to C?

You see that, for example

*Last edited by Fistfiz (2012-11-06 07:51:38)*

30+2=28 (Mom's identity)

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**noelevans****Member**- Registered: 2012-07-20
- Posts: 236

How does this look? :0)

i*180 i*(180/n) i0

(-1)^(1/n) = (1*e )^(1/n) = 1*e so this approaches 1*e = 1 as n goes to infinity.

(The angles are in degrees.)

Writing "pretty" math (two dimensional) is easier to read and grasp than LaTex (one dimensional).

LaTex is like painting on many strips of paper and then stacking them to see what picture they make.

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**Fistfiz****Member**- Registered: 2012-07-20
- Posts: 33

noelevans wrote:

How does this look? :0)

i*180 i*(180/n) i0

(-1)^(1/n) = (1*e )^(1/n) = 1*e so this approaches 1*e = 1 as n goes to infinity.(The angles are in degrees.)

I have to admit that at first sight this looked funny; but after being (maybe) less superficial i'm seeing a meaning behind this:

look it geometrically (i write polar coordinates for complex numbers)...

the (first) square root for -1 is (1,pi/2) (midnight)

the (first) 3rd root for -1 (1,pi/3) (one o'clock)

the (first) 4th root for -1 is (1,pi/4) (half past one)

.....

..... (...some time passes...)

.....

the (first) nth root for -1 tends to (1,0) (almost three o' clock)

so it seems to me that your limit is what the first nth root of (-1) tends to.

EDIT: I want to add something:

where k=0,1,2...,n-1. In particular, the integer part of (n+1)/2 (which is n/2 if n is even and (n+1)/2 if odd) belongs to the list of k's;If we accept your and my proceeding then we get:

(where i put n/2 or n+1/2 as k)

so one of us (or eventually both ) must be wrong.

*Last edited by Fistfiz (2012-11-06 09:00:00)*

30+2=28 (Mom's identity)

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**bobbym****Administrator**- From: Bumpkinland
- Registered: 2009-04-12
- Posts: 93,928

Hi;

or use the composition law for limits to treat it according to this rule:

**In mathematics, you don't understand things. You just get used to them.**

**I agree with you regarding the satisfaction and importance of actually computing some numbers. I can't tell you how often I see time and money wasted because someone didn't bother to run the numbers.**

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**noelevans****Member**- Registered: 2012-07-20
- Posts: 236

Hi!

I assume that we are dealing with the PRINCIPAL roots of -1 (when k=0) since for each n there are n

distinct roots of -1 equally spaced about the unit circle. Fistfiz's example using the clock gives a good

illustration of that sequence progressing counterclockwise from e^ipi to 1 around the top of the circle.

Writing "pretty" math (two dimensional) is easier to read and grasp than LaTex (one dimensional).

LaTex is like painting on many strips of paper and then stacking them to see what picture they make.

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**princess snowwhite****Member**- Registered: 2012-11-06
- Posts: 29

Thank you all. You have been most helpful. Mitu

*Last edited by princess snowwhite (2012-11-06 19:55:03)*

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