Hmm .. that might take awiles ...

Start here on Wikipedia. External Links may help.

I think this link would help http://www.mbay.net/~cgd/flt/flt08.htm

From http://cgd.best.vwh.net/home/flt/flt01.htm it seem that this site has the proof http://www.math.princeton.edu/~annals/i … 141_3.html but it seems that you can only get access to the article through certain universities.

Not my area either ... I think you would need a special interest in the subject to understand it. But interesting to read about, nonetheless

I have a great idea:
Do you want to understand it?
I'm offering to discute the proof from the begining to the end. We'll post what we don't understand.

Are you in?

I'm starting exploring internet...

2 (answer). As i understood it is just  Euclidean plane. Is that right?

3.(answer): I think I understood what is this.
But how to explain it?
A Riemann surface is a surface-like configuration that covers the complex plane with "sheets.". When we have a functin over the complex plaine C, which is not "single valued":
∃ z1,z2 ∈ C: ƒ(z1)=ƒ(z2)=y.
What will we get for the inverse function of ƒ(z)?

Here's "logical" answer:
ƒ-¹(z) =={ƒ1-¹(z) OR ƒ2-¹(z)}.
In the general case ƒ-¹(z) may be union of k "single valued" functions.
The riemann surface of ƒ-¹(z) is the union of the graphs of these functions.

We can use Euclidean plane, too.

Last edited by krassi_holmz (2006-01-01 23:23:37)

I think the following site is the best:
I'm following the proof that siva(thank you) gave me.
There you can download the full solution. Or you can do this by clicking:
here for zipped .pdf file
here for PostScript
and here for .dvi
(I've tested only the .pdf format)

4. Weierstrass p function?

6. Singularity

7. Domain:
A set of values for which f is defined.
For example the function f=n!, defined over Natural numbers (N) has domain N. It also can be said "function f over N "