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## #1 2005-10-18 03:13:45

ssff
Guest

### how to demonstrate this...

This is in the real numbers.

(1+a1)(a1+a2).....(1+an)>1+(a1+a2+...+an)
And n>=2, ai>0 (i=1...n).

Thanks.

## #2 2005-10-18 14:44:52

ryos
Power Member

Offline

### Re: how to demonstrate this...

I'm not sure if I understand what you're asking, but here goes.

I think here:

(1+a1)(a1+a2)

You meant to say: (1+a1)(1+a2)
...as that would make a lot more sense.

(1+a1)(1+a2) = 1 + a1 + a2 + a1a2
1+(a1+a2) = 1 + a1 + a2

The first expression > the second, because there's that extra a1a2 term in there.

This will be true for any n >= 2! This is because the expanded multiplication will always have all the terms of the simple addition, plus some additionals that are combinations of the a's.

That proof probably wouldn't satisfy a mathematician, but it sure works for me.

El que pega primero pega dos veces.