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You are not logged in. #1 2005-08-26 08:25:37
limits - try this one!Recently someone came up with a question on a calculus yahoo group that no one replied: Code:a(n)=(n!)^(1/n) ; n∈N Prove that Code:lim a(n) = +oo n->+oo ..any suggestions? #2 2005-08-26 11:15:52
Re: limits - try this one!First, recall the theorem ( a(n) -> 0 ) => ( (a(n))^(1/n) -> 0 ) , where n -> ∞ in both limits. (the proof of this is pretty straightforward, but I can do it if you like) Last edited by MathsIsFun (2005-08-27 08:34:48) |