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I found this formula online and wondered if anyone can tell me if it is true.
There was no explanation with it.
Last edited by John E. Franklin (2005-12-27 13:43:53)
igloo myrtilles fourmis
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I have seen
∫udv=uv - ∫vdu.
This is exactly the same using f(x) and g(x) instead of u and v, hence its true.
It appears to me that if one wants to make progress in mathematics, one should study the masters and not the pupils. - Niels Henrik Abel.
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Thank you. So it is Integration by parts, I guess, just expressed with dv as g(x). And u as f(x). By the way, how come when you take the derivative of something, the dx usually isn't written down, but when you go backwards for the integral, you always write down the dx. Shouldn't it be used in the answer of the derivative too?
igloo myrtilles fourmis
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Can this part be simplified any? Is there a product rule for integration, or only derivatives?
igloo myrtilles fourmis
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I believe you cant simplify anymore.
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