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#1 2014-11-07 18:23:21

Cam943
Member
Registered: 2014-07-14
Posts: 6

Can anyone prove this?

Hello mathisfun members! I was making up practice proof problems, and I made up a killer one and I want to see if anyone can prove it, so I know how it works and I can add it to my answers. Be warned, it is extremely tough.

Prove that:

For all values of x (all real numbers).

~Cam943

(By the way, if possible, can you somehow keep your proofs to Calculus III level and below? I'm only 13 so I won't understand if you use high level university proofs, though I'm not sure if there are such.)

Last edited by Cam943 (2014-11-07 18:31:33)

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#2 2014-11-07 23:43:51

Olinguito
Member
Registered: 2014-08-12
Posts: 649

Re: Can anyone prove this?

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Bassaricyon neblina

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#3 2014-11-08 06:01:53

Cam943
Member
Registered: 2014-07-14
Posts: 6

Re: Can anyone prove this?

How was it proved that

again? Sorry I couldn't understand. I understood the last part of the proof with

and
though.

Last edited by Cam943 (2014-11-08 06:02:56)

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#4 2014-11-08 06:56:41

Olinguito
Member
Registered: 2014-08-12
Posts: 649

Re: Can anyone prove this?

It is well known that

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[*]

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for any a > 1.


Bassaricyon neblina

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#5 2014-11-08 08:23:34

Cam943
Member
Registered: 2014-07-14
Posts: 6

Re: Can anyone prove this?

Okay, thank you! smile

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