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**{7/3}****Member**- Registered: 2013-02-11
- Posts: 210

I know that limit of (1+1/n)^n as n approches infinity is e.the limit of (1+1/n)^n as n approches nagetive infinity is also e,but how do i prove that?

There are 10 kinds of people in the world,people who understand binary and people who don't.

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**zetafunc.****Guest**

Do you know how to prove that

?If you do this, you can let x be -1, and you will get the required convergence (1/e).

**zetafunc.****Guest**

Never mind, I forgot about the n in the power -- ignore my post

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