I know that limit of (1+1/n)^n as n approches infinity is e.the limit of (1+1/n)^n as n approches nagetive infinity is also e,but how do i prove that?
There are 10 kinds of people in the world,people who understand binary and people who don't.
Do you know how to prove that?
If you do this, you can let x be -1, and you will get the required convergence (1/e).
Never mind, I forgot about the n in the power -- ignore my post