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Thank you again.
I'm asking, because in school we use 9.8 for g.
Yep. Rod has an eye!
I was just trying to post that.
So my formula may work by adding some error correction function:
- the probability to end in a stage with k balls in n bins, such that:Rereading the posts trying to understand what's wrong with the formula, something crossed my mind:
Hard question!
But I got it!
After reviewing the Classic Probability Model, anyone could solve this problem!Hint: First consider all the possiblities to throw all balls one by one. The number of combinations is
binnumber^ballnumber. Apparently each possiblity have the SAME chance. Then all you have to do is to count how many ways to arrange k different bins+the bin repeating the kth+ the rest random bins.Anyone like to solve it thorough??:P:P
George, are you APPARENTLY SURE?
My formula is build assuming the same. But it's FALSE!
Yes! The probability for possibilities with much balls is LESS than the probability for possibilities with less balls, simply because you may end many times before obtainig a position with much balls.
I want to say that the probability to obtain the following:
2 0 0 ... ->b times
is much greater than this:
2 1 1 ... ->b times
And, going to the classical way:
We have 0 combinations with 1 balls.
b combinations with 2 balls (each box filled with 2 balls and the others - empty)
b(b-1) combinations with 3 balls (filling some box with 2 balls and other with one)
b(b-1)(b-2) combinations with 4 balls (filling as 3 balls and another ball)
...
b(b-1)(b-2)...(b-k+2) = b!/(b-k+1)! combinations with k balls
By Pigenhole principe, we should stop at k=b+1.
Now, just finding AM:
Hard question!
But I got it!
After reviewing the Classic Probability Model, anyone could solve this problem!Hint: First consider all the possiblities to throw all balls one by one. The number of combinations is
binnumber^ballnumber. Apparently each possiblity have the SAME chance. Then all you have to do is to count how many ways to arrange k different bins+the bin repeating the kth+ the rest random bins.Anyone like to solve it thorough??:P:P
We don't need to examine all combinations. We only need those, in which there's EXACTLY 1 bin with 2 balls AND every other bin contains 0 or 1 balls.
From the above definition, we have
A program:
#include<iostream>
#include<math.h>
using namespace std;
int main(){
const int MAXBINS=100;
long bins, tests, btmp[MAXBINS], current, counter, res, i, j, rnd;
START:
cout<<"Please enter the number of bins:";
cin>>bins;
cout<<"Please enter the number of tests:";
cin>>tests;
res=0;
for(i=0;i<tests;i++){
counter=0;
for(j=0;j<bins;j++)
btmp[j]=0;
while(1){
rnd = floor((double)rand()*bins/RAND_MAX);
btmp[rnd]++;
counter++;
if(btmp[rnd]==2) break;
}
res+=counter;
}
cout<<"The result is:"<<(double)res/tests<<endl;
cout<<"Press 1 for new test, 0 for exit:";
cin>>i;
if(i!=0) goto START;
return 0;
}
What? Ten!
This can't be.
mathsy's right.
With horner's scheme (i don't know exactly how's in English): ( changing the sign:)
| 2 -5 2 5
2 | 2 -9 20 -35 ->remainder;
Something's wrong here.
Just an obsrvation - because the numbers are in base 2, the total amount of the numbers, starting with 1 is equal to the total amount of numbers, starting with 0. But we can't use this in this problem, because the number of the nulls is fixed.
Sorry for the off topic, but thank you for explainig me.
but... what's G? //sorry for the off-topic again
I've founded a quick way to calculate this!
We have 2 A-s, 2 E-s and 2 T-s.
Let us index the same letters, e.a. A1,A2,E1,E2,T1,T2.
Now we'll use the system{A1,A2,E1,E2,T1,T2,L,R,N}.
In this system the words
A1 LTERN A2 TE
and
A2 LTERN A1 TE
are different, but in the original system, they are the same word.
Now, let's meashure the following:
1 word form the normal system = ? words form the extended system?
Any "normal" word won't change, if we substitute A1 with A2 and E1 with E2 and T1 with T2. 3 couples in total , so:
1 word form the normal system =2^3=8 words form the extended system.
Now, we just need to find the word form the extended system and divide by 8.
In the extended systen, we have no couples, at the first place should stand 1 of 4 letters - A1, A2, E1 or E2. at the last place we should place one of the left 3. Between them, we'll have 7 "empty slots" for filling, which could be done in 7! ways. So the answer is:
Yep.
Should work.
If my calculations are right, then you'd need to be around 14km below sea level for gravity to be that high.
What are these calculations?
And the gravity at poles is different than the gravity at the Equatior.
Or exactly,
But in some cases, an accurate result is needed.
er, could you tell us what do you need it for?
It has more than a million digits!
But...
Using Mathematica I get it for 1.734 seconds
He he!
Joke, right?
//just a test...
No, no!
This system is cracked up!
It doesn't have solutions, so we can't find x-1/x:
Squaring the first equation:
This remids me about something...
Since:
I aggree with tha answer 2880, and my approach is different.
Let's exclude the two ends for a moment. 1 boy and 1 girl are standing there, so for the other 5 seats we have 5 persons, which makes 5! ways for sitting.
Now in the one end can seat 4 boys and in the other - 3 girls, but because we have 2 ends, we'll multiply by 2, so in total:
2.3.4.5!=2880.
That was a tricky one.
It gave me inspiration,too.
Try with the word PENCILLS.
I can rephrase the Stanley's solution:
Let S be the set of all words.
We have 2 sets of words:
A)..xxNx..xLxx..
B)..xxLx..xNxx..
Then A U B = S and A . B = {} (here "." stands for 'or')
And, there exists a bijection θ: A->B, so |A|=|B|.
We can use simular observations to prove the following theorem:
Let