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Hardy's take on it:
These are odd facts, very suitable for puzzle columns and likely to amuse amateurs, but there is nothing in them which appeals to the mathematician.
Perhaps I'd agree, but with a slight alteration. There is nothing in them which appeals to the mathematician in a mathematical sense. A mathematician may find these interesting, just not in a mathematical way. Maybe this is what Hardy meant.
For example, in this same question, when they asked to find H subgroup of S4 and isomorphic to V, I thought the only way to establish the isomorphism is to find a function that is bijective and a homomorphism. Looking at your post as well as Jane's comment, you have mentioned there is no need for a function. And this completely confused me.
The definition of an isomorphism is that there exists a bijective homomorphism, yes. However, this does not mean one has to find such a map. If you can prove the map exists (without finding it), then that is enough.
Let me give you a simpler example. Prove to me that 189518123599594883469824968269829864264098262498494898487654654186546542 is even. Well, an even number by definition is a number n where n = k + k for some integer k. But you can conclude the above number is even without ever finding what k is by just looking at the 1's digit: it's 2, and therefore the above number is indeed even. It would be a complete disaster to try to find k without an infinite-precision calculator to help you.
So if we can show the existence of a map without actually finding a map, then we're done. It turns out that a lot of times, showing the existence of a map is actually easier than finding the map itself.
Why can you make that conclusion and what is "Z/4Z or Z/2Z x Z/2Z." ? Z mod out by 4Z? But what is 4Z? Etc. I dont think im understanding this.
You may have heard of them as "the integers modulo 4", also written as:
When I say Z/2Z x Z/2Z, I mean:
Where addition is component-wise modulo 2 (i.e (0, 1) + (1, 0) = (1, 1) and (1, 1) + (1, 0) = (0, 1)).
Now as for the claim I made, perhaps that is too advanced for you. Let me offer an alternate solution to your problem:
You should know that isomorphisms preserves the order of elements: if f is an isomorphism from G to H, and f(g) = h, then the order of g is equal to the order of h.
So if H were isomorphic to V, there would exist an isomorphism f from V to H. Now f((12)(34)) is an element of H, and by the above it must have order 2. So must all the other nonidentity elements of V.
What are the elements of order 2 in S_4? As I said before, they are all elements that you can represent by disjoint transpositions:
(12), (13), (14), (23), (24), (34), (12)(34), (13)(24), (14)(23)
Well we want H to not be equal to V, so it's best to start by choosing something such as (12). From here, you have severely limited choices for what the other elements are mapped to. A little playing around and you should come across a solution in no time (considering that multiple solutions exist).
Why do you really want to define an isomorphism? The question isnt asking for one.
There is nothing wrong with going above and beyond what a question asked. When I was first doing group theory, I did all sorts of computations like this with symmetric groups. It really helps you get a feel for what a group is.
Edit: Ok, there's nothing wrong as long as you know it isn't needed. If you don't know, then you're missing out. I suppose that was your point...
As to Luis's question:
I haven't checked your definition, as it seems overly complicated. As I said in the other thread you started, define isomorphisms by generators. In this case, (13) and (24) generate your group H. Define where these go, and it defines the entire isomorphism.
For the first, you want to be looking at generators of the group. If you define where generators are sent, you define the entire isomorphism.
For the second, write x = g^k * z_1 and y = g^l * z_2 where z_1 and z_2 are in Z(G). Now compute xy and yx.
Ricky, I didnt really understand your explanation.
That's rather vague. If you consider the problem solved and don't care for the method of finding it, then we can leave it be. But if you want clarification, please be more specific.
I tried using Jane's H group but could not find a function to define the isomorphism.
There are only two groups of order 4 up to isomorphism: Z/2Z x Z/2Z and Z/4Z. If it's not the latter, it must be the first. There is no isomorphism necessary. But the isomorphism would be given by:
(12) -> (12)(34)
(34) -> (13)(24)
I'm going to assume the question is stating that V is a group. A quick check on the Cayley Table will verify this if not. There is also a much nicer construction for what I'm about to say, but it requires use of Van Dyck's theorem, which I don't believe you would have seen yet.
V is a group of order 4, and so it is either Z/4Z or Z/2Z x Z/2Z. Taking a glance at the structure of the elements will indeed tell you that it is Z/2Z x Z/2Z. With the isomorphism type found, what we are really doing is finding another copy of the Klein-4 group in S4.
The Klein-4 group is described by 4 elements where all nonidentity elements have order 2. But looking at elements in S4, an element has order two if and only if it can be represented by disjoint 2-cycles (called transpositions). So let's look at all the elements that have 2 disjoint transpositions:
(12)(34), (13)(24), (14)(23)
Certainly an element of S4 can't have more than 2 disjoint transpositions. So there is only one other possibility. Figure this out, and it will give you a very good idea of what the elements of H have to be.
Based on that fact we can then say that h(n) = g1(n) and that h(n) = g2(n) because it can be either depending on which is the larger.
This is not true. But we can say that g1(n) <= h(n) and g2(n) <= h(n). Now the rest of your proof works perfectly.
Compute it directly.
Now compute N(ab), N(a), and N(b).
You didn't respond at all to my criticisms of using the same variable for different meanings. What does "Structural geometry" have to do with it?
You don't need to conclude that. All you need to conclude is that g1(x) <= h(x).
Set h(x) = max(g1(x), g2(x)). Now how can you relate f1 and f2 to h?
If you can conclude that f1(x) <= h(x) and f2(x) <= h(x), then f1(x) + f2(x) <= h(x) + h(x) = 2*h(x).
Set h(x) = max(g1(x), g2(x)). Now how can you relate f1 and f2 to h?
That depends on their productivity, I would say it's stupid if those kids just spent tireless hours on some video game...
If it's educational, I see little wrong with it.
I find that sometimes I need to spend "tireless hours" playing video games to keep my sanity. As long as you have a balance in your social and educational lives, playing video games in my opinion is ok, even for durations that some others would consider excessive. It's only when it affects other parts of your life is it a problem.
I can easily say that at certain points of my life I spent over 20 hours a month playing games, and for the most part don't regret a minute of it.
You want to assume (without loss of generality) that O(g1(n)) <= O(g2(n)).
Recall that the normal closure of a field L is the smallest field containing L that is normal. Recall that a field K is normal over F provided it is the splitting field of some collection C of polynomials in F[x].
Your task is to first find the minimal polynomials for each of these numbers, and then find all the roots of such polynomials. The field generated by these roots will be normal (since it is the splitting field of the minimal polynomial). It is also the smallest normal field containing a root of the minimal polynomial (why?).
Lets take a look at your first integral:
You use x twice for two completely different things. Inside the integral, we think of x as varying over the region of integration. On the other hand, x as a limit of integration must be fixed. You can't use the same symbol for multiple meanings.
Again, it is just a dummy variable.
It doesn't matter what letter (or thing) you integrate with respect to, but you need to integrate with respect to something.
What's in a name? zeta here is just a dummy variable, and nothing more. You need to integrate with respect to something. Cauchy's integral formula says (under the proper restrictions):
Again, w is just a dummy variable, it could be any letter (one of my friends likes to integrate with respect to symbols such as a smiley face or a boat).
Cauchy's integral formula tells you a rather startling fact: the value of an analytic function is determined by an integral around a curve. In order to integrate around a curve, we introduce a variable that takes on the values of Gamma, in my post it's w, in yours its zeta.
Does that clear things up?
Since MathsIsFun rectified the problem without making any comments on whatever it was I did, why should you do so after the issue has been resolved?
My issue is not the same as your issue. My issue is with how you handled your issue. While related, they are two entirely different things. As far as I'm concerned, my issue is not resolved.
Because I need to know that you understand what you did was rude, insulting, and downright wrong. If you don't know that, then your behavior will continue, as it has been for the past n months.
Edited to add: If this was a one time incident, I wouldn't have posted anything at all. But you seem to do this every week to a different member. And from what I've seen, it's been getting worse overtime. It needs to stop.
Ricky wrote:Find the length of the hypotenuse, and since the triangle is isosceles, the other two angles are pi/2.
No, they are not.
Whoops, my mistake. Thanks Jane. For the angles pi/2 (and multiples of it), draw the unit circle remembering that the x position of a point on the circle is cos(theta) and the y position is sin(theta). The point (0, 1) (the very top of the circle) corresponds to theta=pi/2, and so cos(pi/2) = 0 and sin(pi/2) = 1.
But thats stupid, isnt it? Just plain stupid. Absolutely stupid.
What homework?
I was making a parallel to your interactions with people in person rather than across the internet. You're stupid for not getting that.
But MathIsFun has already explained what the original purpose was, and fixed the problem as well. I therefore see no reason at all to bring up an issue that has already been resolved.
Only a stupid person would think my reply was about the issue. In reality, my post was about how you handled the issue. Stupid stupid stupid.
Do you see my point?
By using the quotient-remainder theorem, you can conclude:
It seems like you should also be able to get somewhere from here, but I can't see it.
You should know how to derive "common" values for sine and cosine. For this problem, you use a right triangle with legs of length 1. Find the length of the hypotenuse, and since the triangle is isosceles, the other two angles are pi/2. Now you can find sine and cosine of pi/2. But you must figure out the sign of the angles. Use the mnemonic:
ASTC - All students take calculus
In quadrant 1, All values of trig functions are positive. In quadrant 2, only sine is positive. In quadrant 3, only tangent is positive, and in quadrant 4, only cosine is positive.
No calculator needed.
But thats stupid, isnt it? Just plain stupid. Absolutely stupid.
Do you act like this in person? When working on a homework assignment with friends, if they make a mistake do you say things similar to what you posted above? I really hope not. And assuming that's the case, why the heck would you think that is appropriate behavior here?
I'm not going to ask you to try to control yourself again because I know you won't. We try to maintain a level of decency here to make this forum enjoyable to all who post. We've given you a lot of slack in this respect, and I'm starting to think too much slack.
If we (Mathsisfun) have to choose between having an enjoyable forum and having you as a member Jane... please don't force us (Mathsisfun) to make that choice.