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Hear me out. Whatever is x is the movement directions, however it rotates.
And if it rotated in the same way as it moved it would be great.
But nothing in space is that well figured out, cause then a black hole wouldn't spin
Cause it does have the time to spin but no time at all within?
That's why a giant accelerator somewhere out in space,
Are consequence to perdendicular time that will gravity relate.
And the declining will no longer decline over the plane x that is so much longer now per measured meter dilate´
The perpendicular mass and time does vary inversely over the z & y line
And when the mass has reached gravitational max the x is there, realax.
For if it pierce the solar heart then all that's left of earth,
Is the old smoking gas of galactical fert.
If anything had as great a spin as speed and velocity,
Then it would've exploded, that's what I said, it would've exploded allready.
no, that there is a max of every kind of thing that reflects the laws of physics.
next last above statement, it still is the same in all directions seen from the ship on an about.
Or isn't that correct?
Ricky, that explanation doesn't really solve any problem, or?
Yes, as in any area.
Einsteins equation is correct. x-wise.
y wise however, I'm certain, is not the same
z I haven't even callibrated yet.
Given that compared to rest, every speed is both positive and negative, we have that compared to the constant speed c:
An observed speed of an observing ant that moves both with speed v and -v. It observes a still ant. from it, light moves in both c + v and c - v seen from the observing ant, The relation between the still ants and the moving ants time is c : √((c + v)(c - v)) is the same as the relation 1/√(1 - (v/c)^2)
The x-wise time dilation that is.
The y and z wise would've been figured out through a triangle.
See picture.
GmM√(1-(v/c)²)/r² = F(x)
Why call this F(x) if there is no F in the equation?
But what is F(y,z)?
This question doesn't seem to make sense.
The thought is that the x wise coordinate is so much bigger compared to the meterstick on the ship with mass M, Even though the gravitational force seen from the ship is equal in all directions.
So basically the gravityforce starts to move perpendicular to movement direction, the faster the ship goes.
I've been counting again: GmM/r^2 -> GmMsqrt(1 - (v/c)^2)/r^2 + -2GmM/r (for v -> c)
Can this be proven then?
If gravity is spreading equally in all directions no matter how fast one move, there must be a sideways force that is bigger then the lengthwise at high velocities?
If the gravity field is moving equally much in all directions from us, Then that wouldn't have been true seen from a system at rest.
Make an assumption: Gravity becomes solely perpendicular at high velocities, cutting through the sun like paper from particleaccelerators
Can some of you on mathisfunforum callibrate the force instead?
GmM√(1-(v/c)²)/r² = F(x)
But what is F(y,z)?
Where G is gravity constant, v is speed, m & M are interacting masses and x,y & z are coordinates & y,z is the plane based on y,z coordinates.
How can my signature get credible?
Oh, yeah, hi friends!
And yes, I believe in them. I also believe that if pigs can knitt their hair and skin and let it heal enough, they can fly short distances, but then again that is true.
So I think you are friends. Thank you.
Yes it can:
This is the gravitomagnetic force:
Bobbym. Imagine that gravity was higher perpendicular to movement speed and the gravitomagnetism was the difference between these forces. Could that be valid?
Let's imagine a triangle with the sides ct(still observer), ct(moving man z,y wise) and vt( moving man x wise )
with speed not being relativistic, but time rather.
Either way, there is a calculeable effect. Check out my other topic and check out the pictures.
Could you help me inprove my calcules?
That is a denial of a lethal force that could destroy on a larger scale then humans may, from what ever I have hear, in any way ever do.
It could cause a gravitational object.
The gravitomagnetical effect would be some. (if someone could help me calculate the perpendicular force to the gravity?)
We have spoke on this subject for long, solutions are getting low, I would like to discuss something entirely different, how about gravitomagnetism and cern?
Well, with such an extensive gravitomagnetic effect as from cern the neutrinoes would form big objects in space that moves towards earth.
And that's my assumption, if you want to see my calcule and model, I'd be glad to prove that statement both through logic and mass interaction models.
I believe any such neutrinomass heading against earth would've been a bad scenario.
Hey, how about enhancing the neutrinoflow in the oilwell through gravitomagnetism in order to close the leakhole?
Actually, it's something like that I believe that moses did, when he divided the river into 2 sides and a way past.
Sounds dangerous, doesn't it?
Allmost like it would've created a gravitational object somewhere?
I believe letting the oil leak has the concept evil. I know for one that the concept is not abritary, I for one am one of the few that can decide what's evil and what's good.
Evil is that which doesn't create more then it destroy. To know good from evil is one of the few things I am really good at.
As a god of highest deity I am able to separate these concepts, good and evil.
Evil must be repaired to create more then it destroy in order to become good.
That's why if one travel near in certain speeds, the momentum will become zero and there will be a big humongous bang that could destroy anything. Because time would stand still. Length would become zero. For instance if one travels in 1.22474 m/s.
The mass's time would become zero and its mass would become eternaly massive and we all would die.
When (2( 1 - (v(c + v)/c)^2) + (1 + v/c)^2)^½ = 0 that would happen.
That is why time dilation is not the same x-wise as z & y wise.
So basically we have the timedilation in the movement direction 1/(1+v/c), the one over the y & z planes, which is calculated like this:
( vt( 0 )²( 1 + v/c ) )² + c²t( 1,y )² = c²t( 0 )²
So:
t( 0 )²( c² - v²(1 + (v/c) )² = c²t( 1,y )²
=
c²t² - t²v^4/c² - t²v² - 2t²v³/c
Thereby:
t² - t²( v/c )^4 - t²v²/c² - 2t²v³/c³ = t( 1,y )
= t²( 1 - (v + v²/c)² )
= t²( 1 - (v + v²/c)(v + v²/c))
= t²( 1 - (v(c + v)/c)²) = t( 1,y )²
Must exist a max in every area, musn't it?
Is that lightspeed or a lone?
My translation for ovärderlig is in google & online dictionaries invaluable.
Which basically means too high value to be priced. Dunno if that's correct though.