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Well, {0} is obviously an equivalence class unto itself.
In the integers modulo 12, there four units, namely 1, 5, 7, 11 (these are the integers that are coprime with 12).
Thus U = {1,5,7,11} (the set of units) is another equivalence class.
To find the other equivalence classes, just multiply each of the other nonzero elements with U.
2U = {2,10} = 10U
3U = {3,9} = 9U
4U = {4,8} = 8U
6U = {6}
Hence the equivalence classes are {0}, {1,5,7,11}, {2,10}, {3,9}, {4,8}, {6}.
The equation I found was y = 2x + 6.
y = 2x would pass through the point (−2,−4), not (−4,−2).
The formula I recall is
You can easily prove that
Therefore for n > 1
Thats the formula, right?
Brilliant! Youve nailed the answers down to a T!
Lets take the numbers 1, 2, 3.
The root mean square is √[(1² + 2² + 3²)∕3] = √(14⁄3) ≈ 2.17.
The mean square root is (√1 + √2 + √3)∕3 ≈ 1.38.
The two are different.
How would you divide this into exactly two parts with one straight line?
Is it only the areas that have to be equal, or do the shapes have have to be identical as well? If only the areas need to be equal (not the shapes), then this is too easy. You just have to slice off an area of exactly 2.5 from the figure.
One way to do it is to join the points K and L on AB and IF respectively, where BK = HL = 0.25; Then the area of rectangle AKLI is 2×1.25 = 2.5 exactly half the area of the whole thing.
Or you can join points M and N on EF and JI respectively such that MF = NI = 5⁄6.
On the other hand, if you want the shapes to be identical as well
Then Eulers formula comes into play.
1. Without using any program (computer or otherwise), how quickly can you find the prime factors of the following numbers?
(i) 359 999
(ii) 1 209 991
(Note: You may use a calculator to help you with your arithmetical calculation, but only a simple, pocket calculator. Use any sort of program is not allowed.)
2. Nine drinking cups are placed in a row. They are alternately right-way up and upside down, the two cups at the ends being upside down. The game consists of turning the cups over two at a time, until all the cups are right-way up. But the question is:
Can this be achieved? If not, why not?
3. Explain how it can be true that 11 + 1 = 111.
Simultaneous non-linear equations in x and y, I believe.
Heres a hint: Notice that the second equation is exactly the same as the first with x and y interchanged? Therefore one possibility is x = y. Try putting that into one of the equations and see what happens.
Okay, Ive been looking at some of these very old threads here
And Ive seen this puzzle before. Here is the solution:
http://puzzles.nigelcoldwell.co.uk/twentysix.htm
When youve found a basis for the space, you will have described the vectors in the space (since every vector is a linear combination of the basis vectors).
Did you get
i thought
denoted rounding the number, [0.3] = 0, [0.8] = 1, [0.5] = 1 etc.and then:
denotes the floor of the number, 0.3 -> 0, 0.8 -> 0and then:
denotes the ceiling of the number, 0.3 -> 1, 0.8 -> 1
[x] always rounds down, never up.
Also note that its not the same as taking the integer part of x for x < 0: [−0.5] = −1, [−2.3] = −3, etc.
You can write it as
For each real number x, denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x. For example: [0.2] = 0, [3.8] = 3, [5] = 5.
The formula above rounds down the value of (b−10a)⁄9 to the last integer before it.
Let the two columns be the ith and jth columns, where i ≠ j. Then the dot product of the columns is the product of the ith row of A[sup]T[/sup] with the jth column of A. This is the (i,j)th entry of the product A[sup]T[/sup]A = I, the identity matrix. Since i ≠ j. this entry is 0.
The converse is certainly not true. Take A to be the zero matrix, for example.
Its actually really simple. Instead of taking an odd prime p, well take any odd number n = 2a+1 > 1.
Now we rewrite the terms in the second half-sum backwards. Note that 2a = n−1, 2a−1 = n−2 a+1 = n−a.
Note that for all k = 1, 2 a
Therefore
for k = 1, 2 a. This shows that u[sub]n−1[/sub] is divisible by n (so the result is true for all odd integers greater than 1, not just odd primes).
You cant do it that way h[sub]p−1[/sub] is not an integer.
Heres a very useful site to check out for when you have problems with differential equations:
Hello and welcome to the site!
Well, then youll have to find a way to integrate xsecx. If you integrate by parts, youll have to integrate the integral of secx, which is ln|secx+tanx|. Im not sure how you do it, really.
I have a very strong suspicion that you got one of the signs in your equation wrong. Instead of
Im very sure it should be
with a minus sign for the tanx. Then instead of xsecx you would be integrating xcosx which is really a piece of cake. The solution to the second equation above satisfying the given initial condition would then be
Frankly I dont see how you can integrate xsecx without making so much of a mess that the question becomes not worth answering at all.
Why not? The solution is
where C is a constant to be determined. You just have to find a way to integrate xsecx so good luck with that one.