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Well, from my mechanics course, I know that power = force x velocity.
So that means that if an engine has a constant power then it has less driving force as its speed increases.
If we factor in the resistive forces or air resistance, friction, etc., then there will eventually be a point where even at full power, the resultant force only manages to break even and so that would be the car's maximum speed.
So, to put that into one equation, it would be something like a = (P/v - RF)/m.
a = acceleration, P = power of engine, v = velocity of car, RF = resistive force, m = mass of car.
I'm not sure how helpful that is or how you can exchange one of these variables for EA though.
well i should honestly say that my formula was derived by the same theory, and inadequate
No air resistance, RFcomes only from in between four wheels and road.
adding air resistance would make RF more complicated. air resistance would be proportional to the speed when low, to square of it when high.
i haven't got that kind of facts, if you like, you can check out papers, published experiment results, etc
ignoring direction, consider velocity as speed (presented as v).
Net a= dv/dt=v' Newton's Law,
Net a= P/(vm) - RF/m -mathsyperson's equation
define P/m=k k is a constant to v
in a friction process, friction force RF= u (Pressing Force) = u m g, where u is determined by the friction surface, m is the car mass, g is acceleration due to gravity
thus RF/m = u g , regardless of mass or speed. define u g= p
v'=dv/dt=k/v-p (former formula doesn't conclude -p here cuz i was not thinking clearly then )
v'-k/v=-p
for simple linear air resistance
v'= k/v -p - av ( backward acceleration due to air)
Who can solve that?
to make more real, net acceleration is fixed at first for some time when v is too low.
Perhaps we can use a software to solve it, i think you are good at it, sam
EA Seconds to 200km/hr
10 12.5
v=200 t=10
Integrate ((π/2)[sup]2[/sup]-[arctan(y)][sup]2[/sup]) dy from 0 to infinity, i guess.
v= k log(1+t) <v velocity t time elapsed> , ideally.
I am a guy curious on almost anything. That's why my first exp here is asking a derivation of 1²+2²+...+n²= n(n+1)(2n+1)/6. I like to ask "why"s and origins, especially in mystical math ones.
I am a Chinese and in my 4th year in university. I guess you gals and guys only know two universities in China, Qinghua and Peking(Beijing)University. Mine is the one perhaps many of you haven't heard of - People's University. (i was very glad to see it on Herald Tribune once) It's a University focused on Economic, Social and Humanity fields. So my college math isn't very good, though i digged some questions and origins very deep.
Glad meeting all you people!
Oh, my last name is Yan, and my English name is George.
Question shooting:
Q:How do you manage to write English so long?
A:1 I am practicing on it 2 Google is my best teacher!
Q:How do you get those Calculus books?
A:There are some big libraries near my home, and a bookstore for cheap used US textbooks in Qinghua.
Q:Why did you post on US time 8pm
A:I feel a little bit lonely when posting in US mornings. But now i've found many of you are in Europe, so whatever, i decide to post in my evenings instead of at noons.
Thank you, i will do it
George, I agree that approaching is different than being. But that's not what we are talking about. 0.111... isn't approaching anything. It's a notation, and nothing more. It means "0.1 with an infinite number of ones after it." Now, I think you are trying to prove that 1/9... is different than "0.1 with an infinite number of ones after it." Now if that is so, then please tell me which decimal place does not have a '1'.
What's the difference between [0,1) and [0,1]?
One's closed, one's neither closed nor open.
"0.1 with an infinite number of ones after it."- you are using reached infinite. well, if infinite can be reached, infinitesmalls can reach 0 accordingly. what is Δs/Δt when Δt EXACTLY reaches 0??
Why do i say real numbers are MOBILES?
Cantor used a special defination to class rational numbers and irrational numbers into the same category:
He defined √2 as a set containing all rational numbers p satisfying p[sup]2[/sup]<2 , since "=" is invalid.
To make homogenousity(similarity), real 1 is certainly defined as another set containing all rational numbers p satisfying p<2 , where "=" cannot be used either.
Further Explaination
Between 2 rational numbers exist another
We can easily verify this by drawing an axis, setting unit 1, then using basic geometric skills (parallel lines) to point out any rational number on the axis, and finally point out the midpoint-another rational number Rational Numbers are STABLE.
Real Numbers as mobiles
but for a real number 1, you cannot point it out on an axis only according to its defination. The only way you can solve it is to say it's idendical to the rational 1,
and point out the latter instead.
But how do you arrive at real 1 is idendical to rational 1?
The trick necessary is given any rational number between the two, it can be concluded in real 1's set. The set "enlarges" as if a variable approaches to its limit.
so when proving a real 1 = a rational 1, a mistake to equal "approaching" to "being" seems unavoidble.
Let alone "between 2 real numbers exist another", this time they both can move, what else could i say?
midhole spays furtherst, if the bottle is placed on ground.
the position of x should be a function of t. x = p(t)
- can we use a cartesian co-ords? A water particle's position is
(x,y)= (x(t),y(t)) , in which x is the horizontal distance from bottle, y is the height it has fallen
define d= depth
x= √(2dg) t (1)
y= g t^2 /2 (2)
solving 2 for t gets
t= √(2y/g)
hence x can be expressed an explicit function of y as
x=2 √(dy)
if you place a full bottle on the ground, a hole at 1/n height of bottle and another hole at 1-1/n height will have their water stream intersect on the ground.
but the hole at the mid point will spray water further, with x=2d , the same as bottle height, when y= d = 1/2 bottle height
e^ix e^-ix = (cosx+isinx)(cosx-isinx) < sin(-x) =-sinx > = (cos^2[x] - i^2 sin^2[x])=(cos[x])^2+(sin[x])^2
where e^ix e^-ix =1
((1-t^2)/t^1/2) = 1/t^1/2 - t^2/t^1/2 =t^-1/2 -t^3/2
t^a/t^b=t^a-b and 1/t^a=t^-a
Good proof! Thanks a lot
a small error, though
f(x) = x^i should be x^k instead, same to the following
in order to know sum of i^k, we need to do know k-1 sums of i^l ,for l=1,2,...k-1
but to me, sum of squares is enough to derive Spearman's Coefficient
Both velocity and acceleration are vectors. All vectors can be decomponented into a sum of inter-perpendicular vectors. perpendicular means they don't interfere each other. in this case, a vector can be decomponented to a horizontal one and a verticle one, (eg Sqrt(2gh) i and 0j, where i and j stand for horizantal and verticle unit vector) and the verticle component of the acceleration does not influence the horizontal componet , like g doesn't interfere horizontal velocity.
Thus a motion containing accelerations and velocities and displacements can be decomponented into 3 dimensions.
here 2-d is enough.
horizontally, no a, so v constantly √(2gh) thus displacement sx=v t, where sx stands for horizontal displacement.
vertically, a=g, v0=0 so vt = at = gt, displacement sy=1/2(v0+vt)t = 1/2 a t^2 = 1/2 g t^2
now we know after a certain time t, sy=d,
solve t out, t=√(2d/g)
sx=v t = √(2gh) √(2d/g)= 2√(hd)
sx=2√(hd), when sy=d
t is not contained in this formula, and it applies to water particle escaping from any holes. it states its horizontal displacement after having fallen distance d.
uh o, it seems a lot of difficulty to go further, lazy person like i would like to pass it onto next solver...
Srory i had not fniihsed it
Do you agree real numbers are defined as variables, and they are mobiles?
I could give a example that approaching is not being even in real number system.
What's the difference between [0,1) and [0,1]?
I guess a+bi is any complex number, and n[]is a kind of function that outputs a comlex number's modulus
|a+bi|=Sqrt (a^2 + b^2)
|(3+4i)^3| = |3+4i|^3 ( proven by polar form)=5^3
The answer is b
Ho Odg!!
Once I read this problem in a calculus book. the key is a water particle escaping from the hole has a initial velocity ( Sqrt(2gh), 0 ), where h is the depth. The water particle used to be balanced by all other particles around it and the bottle, thus no wonder the velocity is horizontal. But how the magnitude is determined seems to be a physics theorem.
Q15 is especially hard
How many different ways can you select 3 cards from 52? 52 choose 3. Or (52 * 51 * 50) / (3 * 2 * 1). That's equal to 22100.
How many ways can you draw 2 Red and 1 Black (or 2 Black and 1 Red)? (26 choose 2) * (26 choose 1). Or, (26*25) / (2*1) * (26 / 1). Thats equal to 8450. So the probability of drawing 2 Read and 1 black is 8450 / 22100 = 13/34.
To double-check our work, we can calculate the odds of drawing 3 red (or 3 blue). That's 26 choose 3. Which is equal to (26 * 25 * 24) / (3 * 2 *1) = 2600. The probabilty is then 2600 / 22100 = 2/17.
2 Red and 1 black ==> 13/34
1 Red and 2 black ==> 13/34
3 Red ==> 2/17
3 Black ==> 2/17
=====
1
Great! The ways how 3 is chosen from 52 have the same probability. That's the meaning of Classical Probility Model. The next thing is to select ways to meet the question, no matter how them are generated. Looking at the problem from a different angle is often where innovations come from!
But infinity is not a number.
what's the difference between approaching 0 and being 0?
Pick any number greater than 0, and I can find a number less than it. Thus, since it isn't less than or greater than 0, it must be 0. Since the distance is 0, it is 0.
if infinitesmall is zero ds/dt has a denomirator 0, no sense
ds will be approaching 0 as dt approaches 0, and thus, we are left with 0/0, an indeterminate form, and so it does make sense.
I think it's time to make up some agreement and brief the points.
1-0.999...=infinitesmall by k/10^n type
1/9-0.111...=infinitesmall by k/10^n type
1/infinitesmall is Exactly Stable 0,so that .999...=Exactly1 , 0.111...=Exactly 1/9, or else you admit infinitesmall isn't as SAME as 0, THOUGH "CLOSE"
between 2 real numbers exists a real number.
By the way, no easy excuses, "you cannot simply apply finite to infinite" is one of them, it will be considered an excuse, not one explaination. Because the question "Why?" "How?" will challenge it.
INFINITE is not a CARD GAME, with whatever set-up rules in mathematists' imaginary world.
It should be LOGICALLY CONSISTENT .
Next time i will explain it in more detail.
My pleasure
FORMER PROOF of
What the Quotient and the Remainder of the dividend 1/9 are
as soon as the Nth digit after the decimal point of the Quotient Comes Out
Hypothesis:(H(n)) the quotient is 0.11...1 (n 1s) and the remainder is 0.0...0(n 0s so far)1=1/10^n
Proof:
1) n=1
0.1
____
9) 1.0
9
_____
1------show the remainder is 0.1
H(1) is true
2) If H(k) is true, when k>=1, deduct H(k+1)
the quotient is 0.11...1(k 1s) and the remainder 0.00...(altogether k 0s)1, continue the division
kk+1 th digit after decimal point
| |
0.11...11
_______
9)1.0
...
...
__
10
9
__
*10
9
__
1---the remainder is 0.00..0(altogether k+1 0s)1
* the remainder in H(k) is 0.00...(altogether k 0s)1 with the form 1 corresponding the nth digit after the decimal point in the quotient. To further compute, add 0 on its right.
When H(k) is true, H(k+1) is also true
Conculusion) for n>=1, H(n) is true.
Proof of the error of the quotient to 1/9 is 1/900...0(n 0s)when the former has n digits after decimal point---
1/9-0.11...1(n 1s) =
10^n/(9*10^n) - 99...9/(9*10^n)
= 1/(9*10^n)=1/900...0(n 0s)
0.11...1 still not a rational number, the only rational way up to now is to express it as a series
{S(n)}={0.1, 0.11, 0.111, ...},
Limit[S(n)]=1/9 when n->infinitity
since the error has been derived, proof is omitted to the following
Error |S(n)-1/9|=1/(9*10^n) forever shrinks when n->infinity
Limit|S(n)-1/9|=0 when n->infinity
another expression for above is
S(n)->1/9, when n->infinitity
|S(n)-1/9|->0, when n->infinitity
Clearly |S(n)-1/9|=1/(9*10^n) is the infinitesmall in this case. it's a function of integers. it's not ZERO. it approaches to it. Any infinitesmall is a VARIABLE induced by n, x or some other varible.
If you say infinitesmall is zero here inorder to say 0.111... =1/9 Berkeley's Attack is far more than enough to tear the logic of calculus and limit theory.
if infinitesmall is zero ds/dt has a denomirator 0, no sense
if infinitesmall is not zero 0.111... never equal to 1/9, and realtime velocity can never be approximate:
V(t)=ds/dt=(k(t+dt)²-kt²)/dt=k+kdt kdt?
"And what are these fluxions? The velocities of evanescent increments. And what are these same evanescent increments? They are neither finite quantities, nor quantities infinitely small, nor yet nothing. May we not call them ghosts of departed quantities? "
---The analyst: or a discourse addressed to an infidel mathematician, written by Berkeley, published in 1734.
http://www-groups.dcs.st-and.ac.uk/~history/Mathematicians/Berkeley.html
the former proof implies it's not controversial to rewrite 0.111... as {S(n)}, since it's a series covergent to 1/9, there always exists another series convergent more rapidly to 1/9.
Almost all theroems in real numbers come from one origin, Cantor's definition of real numbers.
"There always exist a number between two numbers" is saying real numbers are thick. rational numbers are thick, too.
But can you even say 0.99... or 0.11 a real number? (the first time i doubted this)
"This division will never be exact. We will keep getting 090909... To round it off to three places, we have calculated the digit in the fourth place. It is 9. Therefore, we will add 1 to the previous digit:
0.09090.091
One sometime sees, 1 ÷ 11 = 0.090909... The three dots, called ellipsis, mean "and so on for as far as you please according to the indicated pattern, or according to the rule."
!!!!This means that 1 ÷ 11 cannot be expressed exactly as a decimal. !!!! However, we may approximate it to as many decimal places as we please by following the pattern 090909."
http://www.themathpage.com/ARITH/divide-whole-numbers-2.htm
between two !!!! 's(added by me) intrigued my doubt.
Maybe i should reread some books before exactly illustrating my point of view on Cantor's definition
0.111...?=1/9 --this was taught during primary school, but itsn't neccesarily true.
Ancient Greeks only had two types of number systems: the integer system and the rational numbers one. By "rational" as it literally means, an integer devided by an integer. all 0.1 0.01 0.001 can directly refer to rational numbers 1/10 1/100 1/1000, so the difference is small and superficial, or nominal. However, 0.111...cannot be written into this form.
how do you get 0.111...? rethink the procedure
1/9= (1*10/9) /10 = (1+1/9)/10= 1/10+1/9/10= continue to compute= 1/10+(1*10/9)/10/10= 1/10+(1+1/9)/100=1/10+1/100+1/900=11/100+10/900/10=...
Here Implicit induction is used despite in primary school. But don't take it for granted-
The induction only proves when you continue to compute to next number place, 0.11..1 gets a new 1 and the leftover shrinks by tenth!
Where does the leftover finally go? Infinitesmall again. So 1/9=0.111... is actually proved by induction and limit theory! 1/9=0.111...+infinitesmall. Berkeley's ghost is still on the way.
Of course primary school textbook won't go this deep. Better rethink it.
the gap between integer system and rational numbers system is a "/", but the gap between real number system and real number system is far more fundamental. real number system can't get away with infinite, whether it be infinitesmall or "...".
To conclude, the difference between integer system and rational number system is infinity, decimal system without ... is a special rational number system, but the difference between rational number system and real number one is INFINITE. Redefining 1 to 1/1 include a "/",but redefining 1 to a infinite set makes a huge difference.
Your proofs (the latest proof Dedekind's cut) are all based on real number system, and they are quite true within this system, these rules. But this rules are not commonly believed by mathematists.
Actually lots of mathematists questioned this defination, the first was Cantor's teacher, and later Russel. Russel's attack was fundamental-he questioned an element in the set( a rational member) can be defined by another set...As for here, i would use his argument to say a real 1 is not a rational 1.
Umm, 0.999... between 1? 0.999...5 might be the answer, i add 5 on the right of all your 9, nomatter how many or increasing.