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M is negative, it should be
Not
Well, I want to emphasize that I just followed Wikipedia's proof step by step. They did the hard part, all I was left with was the algebra to generalize it.
Phew, ok, I finally worked this out. I'll hide it behind a button so the page doesn't explode.
From Wikipedia (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_integrals_of_rational_functions):
The answer turns out to be surprisingly simple.
I don't think you quite understood what I meant by 'optimal' answer. What I meant was that my answer allows the widest range of values for x that still satisfy the requirements of a limit. However, in order to provide an epsilon-delta limit proof you only need to provide any delta that satisfies the epsilon requirements. In the case of problem #1, the book's answer of δ = min{1/6, ∈/18} is more restrictive than my answer. So it is not 'optimized' in the sense that there are values of δ that satisfy the proof that are not covered by their answer, but it is correct in that it satisfies the requirements.
As for how they reached their answer, I'm not sure. I haven't done an epsilon-delta proof in a while and don't remember how to simplify them.
For 2, do the same thing.
I'll let you finish from there. Do be careful when working with inequalities like this; you need to be aware of signs. In this case you can square the inequality because all 3 expression are positive as long as ∈ < 2. If this is for an assignment, however, I would suggest being explicit about signs when you perform an operation that could cause the direction of the inequality to change, so here you should note that you are assuming ∈ < 2.
For question 1, assume we have a variable
. Our task is to find an expression for such that for everyThis is equivalent to
Now we just need an expression for δ such that
We go with the 2nd inequality since it is smaller for all positive epsilons.
Edit: My answer is the loosest possible expression for δ. Obviously the text sacrificed some optimization for the sake of simplicity. Since you only need to prove that there is some δ > 0 such that |f(x) - L| < ∈ this is fine, you don't need the most optimized expression.
First of all,
can't be -1 because e^x > 0 for all x. Secondly, the point of splitting the integral into 2 parts is to remove the absolute value from the function. What you want to solve for isJudging by the thread title I think the number of revolutions per minute is a geometric progression, starting at 1500 and decreasing by 20% each minute.
i)
How many revolutions would be made during the 5th minute?
Multiply the number of revolutions in the 4th minute by 0.8 for your answer.
ii)
How many revolutions would be made during the 10th minute?
You can brute force this question, but the easier way is to come up with a function to determine the number of revolutions for the x-th minute. f(1) = 1500, f(2) = 1500 * 0.8, f(3) = 1500 * 0.8 * 0.8, etc.
iii)
**After what interval would the number of revolutions be less than 100rpm?
Use the function you determined in part ii and solve for f(x) < 100.
iv)
What total number of revolutions made after the 16th minute?
Again, find a function s(x) to calculate this value for the x-th minute.
v)
**How long would it take for the total number of revolutions to exceed 7400?
Use the function from part iv to solve for s(x) > 7400.
vi)
How many revolutions would the motor take to come to stand still?
Use the function from part ii to solve for f(x) <= 0.
Lots of geometry problems like this one can be solved with calculus, so for some people, the first reaction on seeing this problem would be to set up an integral. In this case, it's easy to see how to do the problem, but doing the calculation might be trickier.
That's a really good point. While I doubt I could have ever come up with the geometric method for solving the problem, I would have been in similar trouble if I didn't have easy access to a list of common integrals and had to integrate
myself.I feel sorry for people who had to get through life before calculus.
Edit: I get the same answer as bobby except for his 1/3 multiplier. I can't see where that's coming from.
I think he's saying that you can't pass information using this method. For example, let's say you take 2 particles that are entangled and transport them 1 lightyear away from each other. If a scientist measures the first particle's spin then he immediately knows what the spin of the other particle is, even though it's 1 LY away.
Now, you could say that he gained information on the second particle immediately by measuring the first one, but really the information didn't transfer immediately. It existed when the particles were first created, it just wasn't measured. It then took a certain amount of time to transport the particles 1 LY apart, during which time they traveled less than the speed of light, so information traveled slower than the speed of light.
Now, what luca is saying is that you can't change the spin of a particle. So while you could say that the spin of a particle is information, it cannot be used to send information faster than the speed of light. It traveled with the particles as they were transported 1 LY apart.
Im not following. You cant just substitute expressions for inequalities in other inequalities
The Right hand side is ok, but not the left side. You have:
if im not missing anything.
Right?
Hi TheDude;
There is also a much easier way to attack this problem then the IVT.
Probably true, but I'm something of a 1-trick pony
Assume that there is a triplet (a, b, c) such that the polynomial has no roots between 0 and 1. By the IVT we know that f(0) and f(1) must either both be greater than 0 or less than 0. Since every term of the polynomial has a parameter we only need to consider the case where both are greater than 0.
Now solve for b:
Substitute these values into our previous inequality:
These inequality signs are strict, so we have a contradiction. There is no triplet (a, b, c) where both f(0) and f(1) are greater than 0 (or less than 0), and so by the IVT there must be at least one root between 0 and 1 for all possible triplets.
Since there is a limit at x=3, you can safely cancel as long as you keep in mind that the function is undefined at that point. More formally, you can rewrite your function as
It doesn't matter that your function is undefined at x = 1/3, since that's the case both before and after the cancellation. You didn't change that fact by simplifying the function.
To TheDude
The shortest solution" would be the most Efficient way for Player B to Guess the Six Hidden Numbers
as in my example in one Guess the Problem could be reduced very Efficiently from 6 x 6 x 6 x 6 x 6 x 6 = 46656 to 5 x 5 x 5 x 5 x 5 x 5 = 15625 possible ways!
That still doesn't answer my question. Let's say you have 2 different solutions to this problem. Out of the 46556 possible combinations, on average Solution A will take 15 steps. However, in the worst case scenario it will take 30 steps to finally get the answer. Solution B's worst case scenario takes only 25 steps, but on average it takes 20 steps to get the answer. Which solution would you consider to be the shortest or most efficient?
First of all, I think you need to be more specific when you say "shortest solution". I would guess, although I'm not sure, that the algorithm with the best worst-case performance would be different from the algorithm with the best average performance.
Reviving this problem, you can carry bobby's work a little further. For the sake of redundancy I want to point out that both A and B must be greater than 1 for logs to be meaningful, otherwise you get into divide by 0 problems. Not a huge issue since you can test A = B = 1 by hand, just wanted to cover all of our bases.
Now, we got to
The left side is clearly an integer. For the right side to also be an integer we must have B = A^n, where n is a rational number greater than 1 (I won't show the work here, but you can pretty easily see that B > A and thus n > 1). Rewriting that equation gives us
Now take the log again:
There are 3 possibilities: n < A, n = A, and n > A. If n = A then the LHS is 0 but the RHS is 1, so n cannot be equal to A. If n > A the LHS is negative but the RHS is positive, so n cannot be greater than A. If n < A the RHS is less than 1, so we can narrow our search to A - 1 < n < A.
Off the top of my head I can't think of a way to prove that the solution is unsolvable, but I'm pretty sure it is.
I'm not sure m is always an integer with that set of solutions, bobby.
It's a good way of reformulating the problem though.
Sorry if you were responding to a post from bobby that's been deleted, but it looks like you were addressing me.
how did you get
?
No worries ganesh, just takes switching around some numbers.