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if (jdif1<0.33334) and (jdif2<0.33334) and (jdif3<0.33334) then
jdblcheck = jdblcheck + 1This bit in John's program does work?
I going to have to do more thinking ...........
Bob
Yes, that works because the numbers have already been determined and at this point in the program he's just checking that they fit the criteria. This same logic doesn't work when using probabilities because they are conditional. As you showed there is a 5/9 chance that |x - y| < 1/3, but if we already know that |x - y| < 1/3 and |y - z| < 1/3 then there is a greater than 5/9 chance that |x - z| < 1/3. The problem is that I don't know how to figure out exactly what the chance that |x - z| < 1/3 is, which is why I gave up on this approach.
I'm not sure. Intuitively I would think that you could integrate in any order, but I haven't actually tried. I set up the integrations from most to least tightly bound because that was the easiest way for me to visualize and set up the problem.
Now I come to the confusing bit; thanks for reading this far:
If G stands for greatest and L for least surely
is the same as
which is
I'm guessing this is where my thinking is wrong, but I cannot see why. Any ideas?
Thanks,
Bob
The problem is that by multiplying them together like that you're treating all 3 as independent events. 5/9 * 5/9 * 5/9 is the probability that, on 3 distinct occasions, you drew 2 random numbers that were within 1/3 of each other. To solve the problem with this method I think you'll need to use http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Conditional_probability , which is what I tried at first but failed to do.
Wow!!!!! I had no idea calculus could be involved in probability!!!! This is an amazing work. I only wish I could understand it all. I can follow the calculus, but I don't understand how to set up the problems and add them together and why, but I am very impressed, nevertheless, and the answer is within 1% of the computer's answer too.``
It gets really complicated really fast for something like bell curves (I don't think they even have closed form solutions), but a uniform probability distribution is pretty straightforward. You take the integral of 1 from the lowest value to the highest value that you're interested in. For example, to find the probability that a randomly drawn number is between 1/2 and 3/4:
which is what you'd expect. This makes it really nice for calculating problems involving multiple probabilities. For example, to find the probability that the first number drawn is less than 1/2 and the second number is between 1/3 and 2/3:
Again, this matches our intuition. For this problem we are drawing 3 numbers so we need a triple integral. I skipped showing the innermost integral in my first post since it was late and I didn't want to do that much LaTeX, and doing an integral of 1 is straightforward enough.
The important thing to keep in mind for this problem is that you have 2 breakpoints: 1/3 and 2/3. For example, consider a simplified problem where we want to find the probability that 2 randomly drawn numbers are separated by 1/3 or less. If our first number x is between 1/3 and 2/3 then there our second number y can be anywhere between x - 1/3 and x + 1/3, which has a 2/3 chance of happening. But if x is less than 1/3 then y must be between 0 and x + 1/3, which has a x + 1/3 chance of happening. So we need to handle these situations differently.
For the main problem we identified 4 distinct cases. Here's my logic behind each of them:
Case 1 - x is less than 1/3, y is less than x. Since x and y are both less than 1/3 this means that it is impossible for z to be too small, or in other words z is bounded below by 0. It is bounded from above by the smaller of x and y, which in this case is y. So overall we have 0 <= x < 1/3, 0 <= y <= x, and 0 <= z <= y + 1/3. The integral for this is
Case 2 - x is less than 1/3, y is greater than x but less than 1/3. Again, since x and y are both less than 1/3 then z is bounded below by 0. As with case 1 it is bounded above by the smaller of x and y, which in this case is x. Overall we have 0 <= x < 1/3, x <= y < 1/3, 0 <= z <= x + 1/3. Our integral for this is
Case 3 - x is less than 1/3, y is greater than 1/3 but less than x + 1/3. Now z is bounded below by y and above by x, giving us 0 <= x < 1/3, 1/3 <= y <= x + 1/3, y - 1/3 <= z <= x + 1/3. This gives us
Case 4 - x is between 1/3 and 2/3, y is greater than x - 1/3 and less than x. In this case z is bounded below by x and above by y, giving us 1/3 <= x <= 2/3, x - 1/3 <= y <= x, x - 1/3 <= z <= y + 1/3.
There is exactly 1 equivalent mirror case for each of these 4 cases, so adding these probabilities together and multiplying by 2 will give you the final answer.
The exact answer I'm getting is 21/81.
Another way of stating this problem is "find the probability that at least one of the two rolls is greater than 4". The easiest way to solve this problem is to find the opposite, i.e. find the probability that neither roll is greater than 4. With one roll there is a 4/6 = 2/3 chance that the roll is not greater than 4. With two rolls you need both to be 4 or less, so the probability is 2/3 * 2/3 = 4/9. This means there is a 4/9 chance that neither roll is greater than 4, so there is a 5/9 chance that at least one roll is greater than 4.
The problem is that the cardinalities of the rationals the complex numbers are not equal. The rationals are countable and the complex numbers are uncountable. Either you're supposed to compare the reals and the complex numbers, or you're using some kind of reduced version of the complex numbers where the real and imaginary parts can only be rationals, or the problem is simply wrong.
I think he's asking about the cardinality of R versus the cardinality of C.
That last part isn't correct.
Use L'hopital's Rule at the last line:
Is there a typo in this problem? First of all I assume the last term in the sum is supposed to be 1/√n, not 1/n, correct? The left inequality, n <= 1 + 1/√2 + 1/√3 + ... + 1/√n is false, in fact the exact opposite is true for all positive integers. And the right inequality is trivial, considering that the sum grows logarithmically while n*√5 grows linearly.
There are a couple things to note here. First is that a number's divisibility by 5 can be determined solely by the 1's digit. If it is 0 or 5 then the entire number is divisible by 5, otherwise it is not. Secondly, the 1's digit of x^4 can also be determined solely by the 1's digit of x. So first let's make a list of the 1's digit of the fourth power of every number from 0 to 9:
0^4 = 0 -> 0
1^4 = 1 -> 1
2^4 = 16 -> 6
3^4 = 81 -> 1
4^4 = 256 -> 6
5^4 = 625 -> 5
6^4 = 1296 -> 6
7^4 = 2401 -> 1
8^4 = 4096 -> 6
9^4 = 6561 -> 1
Now we can group these numbers into 2 categories, those that end in either 0 or 5 and those that end in 1 or 6. If the chosen numbers x and y are both from the same group then x^4 - y^4 will be divisible by 5. Try to finish it yourself from there.
It's a typo, he meant k^4 + 2k^3 + 2k^2 + k.
If a number is divisible by 2 and 3 then it is divisible by 6, so we need to prove that k^4 + 2k^3 + 2k^2 + k is divisible by 2 and 3. Proving it for 2 is quick: 2k^3 + 2k^2 is clearly divisible by 2. For k^4 + k, note that if k is even then k^4 is even and if k is odd then k^4 is odd. So k^4 + k is either even + even or odd + odd, both of which result in an even number, which is of course is divisible by 2.
For 3, go back to the assumption. We assume that k^5 - k is divisible by 30, which means it is also divisible by 3. Equivalently, k(k^4 - 1) is divisible by 3. That means that either k or k^4 - 1 is divisible by 3. If k is divisible by 3 then k^4 + 2k^3 + 2k^2 + k clearly is as well. If not then either k = 3x + 1 or k = 3x + 2 where x is an integer. Make both substitutions and prove that the result is divisible by 3, then you're done.
Your right but those are not the roots of that quadratic. But it does not matter for your proof.
Hah, I can do a proof concerning quadratic equations but can't solve a simple one
That has 2 real roots bobby, at
The new constraint fixes it. First I'll assume that 'a' is not allowed to be 0, since otherwise the result is wrong. In order for a quadratic to have fewer than 2 real roots you need
Since b^2 is always >= 0, 4ac > 0 (it can equal 0 if b and c equal 0, but that's an uninteresting exception I'll address at the end) that means a and c must either both be positive or both be negative. If a > 0 then f(x) >= 0 for all x, if a < 0 then f(x) <= 0 for all x, so we need to prove that a > 0 under the constraints. Do this by contradiction and assume a, and also c, are less than 0:
This is a contradiction so our assumption that a < 0 must be wrong. Since a > 0 that means f(x) >= 0 for all x.
(Note that if b = c = 0 we're left with a + 0 > 0 ==> a > 0 by our constraint, so the proof is immediately clear).
As far as I can tell this isn't true. For example, try a = -1, b = 1, c = -1. -x^2 + x - 1 does not have 2 distinct real roots, a + b > c, but f(x) < 0 for all real values of x.
Whoops, thanks for the catch. Ok, so starting over, by inspection we can see that n^2 <= n! is true for n = 0,1 and false for n = 2,3. Prove that it is true for n >= 4:
So whenever n+1 <= n! and the original inequality holds for n, then by induction it holds for n+1. Now do another induction to show that n+1 <= n! for all n >= 4 and you're done.
By inspection this is true for n = 0 and n = 1. Prove it is not true for n >= 2:
By the definition of Big O notation, we want to find an M and x such that
Let's try x = a and solve for M:
We've constructed x and M such that our original inequality holds at n = a. Use mathematical induction to prove it for n > a:
Well, umm, you see, the answer is that you do have to, and my solution is wrong. I have what should be the correct expression now, but I'm not sure how to solve it. Here's what I have so far. Instead of integrating from -1 to 1, you have to integrate between where the circle intersects y = c.
Again we set this to pi/3:
I'm not sure where to go with it from here.
Picture a unit circle centered on the origin being sliced with the horizontal line y = c. The area contained between the top portion of the circle and the line is
The full area of the circle is pi, so we want to leave pi/3 after the slice:
This turns out to be 0.262 above the origin, or 1.262/2 = 63.1%. So your program got pretty close.
Thinking about it some more, we can actually narrow our search even further. Remembering that we asserted a <= b <= c, this means that
must be true. We showed before that the RHS of this inequality is smallest when b is smallest, which in our case would be b = a. And the minimum value allowed for c is c = a, so if the inequality
is not true then there is no solution for that value of 'a'. Solving the inequality we get
This inequality does not hold for a >= 4, so we only need to search on a = 2 and a = 3 (note that this inequality does not hold for a = 2, but because of the quirk we noted earlier the RHS of the original inequality actually increases for a short while as b increases so it does allow for possible answers). This leaves us with something like 10 possible triplets to check, easily done with trial and error.
Worked on this some more and I think we can narrow it down to very few possibilities. Unnecessarily convoluted math is spoilered.
There's a handful I found mathematically (i.e. not trial-and-error). WLOG choose one variable to fix and solve for the other two, we'll go with
. To keep from tripping over ourselves on notation let's use x and y for b and c, as they will be the variables we're solving for. So we haveWe want to find a y such that x is an integer. The easiest way is to set the denominator to 1, so let's do that.
As long as y is an integer x will be too, so you can grab some triplets this way. That doesn't rule out other solutions, I'll let you know if I find any more.
I don't know if you're allowed to do this but this problem can be brute-forced pretty easily. The denominators will very quickly overcome the numerators and the left side will strictly decrease, so you don't have to check very many values.