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Some help (hints) greatly appreciated!
I been stuck in this question for a long time and would appreciate some help.
wow simple...
Thanks JaneFairFax!
and thanks Ricky! I did see your hint before, but it was deleted?
Im not following something in this proof. We have that:
Why is it that:
Help appreciated!
What would be the center of mass of the following figures? How to determine so?
Im stuck on this one:
And im stuck. I havent done anything basically, just laid out the background for the proof. Can someone help?
Thanks a lot Jane for checking my proof!
I have this exercise for homework and it was essentially trivial to prove which leads me to think I somehow did something wrong.
In my opinion, my proof seems valid, my only doubt is the fact that I dont ever use the fact that p is a prime number. It seems to hold for any positive number p. Can anyone shed some light? Thanks.
Hello sumpm1. In my university before we can take Real Analysis we must take a class named "Introduction to Advanced Mathematics" in which we are introduced to proofs etc. In that class, the last month or so we do an introduction to analysis in which we learn all about supremum, infimum etc.
However, this semester, in the actual Real Analysis class, in the first day we did a short introduction to complex numbers and Schartz Inequality and then we began by defining metric spaces, doing proofs about open and closed sets, compact sets, etc. We are following Rudin's Mathematical Analysis book so we will always be dealing with metric spaces instead of actually R^k. I dont know if this is good or bad. We actually do all the theorems in metric spaces instead of Euclidean space.
We already went over sequences, limits of a sequence etc and are now dealing with series.
Im currently taking Real Analysis as well, would appreciate if someone could check my proofs
I'd like to raise this question and see if there is an explicit answer or if this is just one of those topics that is not well established and yields different answers depending on who you speak to.
Basically all of this started for some reason during my Axiomatic Set Theory class, the topic just came and we asked our Professor who is a Set Theorist/Logician (Foundations) and he told us that 0^0 = 1. He gave a quick argument using Power Series:
He mentioned he also had another argument from a logic point of view but didnt show it.
So now yesterday in our Abstract Algebra, our Professor who is a Algebraic Geometer mentioned during the lecture for some reason that 0^0 is undefined to which we all told him the discussion we had in Axiomatic Set Theory. Well, he couldnt believe that our other Professor had said it was equal to 1 since he says that it is obviously undefined.
So in this thread I basically ask, which one of my Professors is right? Or is this one of topic in which no one is right and you assume whatever you want?
Regardless, I would like to see your thoughts
I believe it means "proof done".
Just like "Q.E.D"
The reals are countable? Go look at Cantor's Diagonal Argument and come back to this thread.
Like "TheDude" said, countability requires a bijection from said set to the natural numbers. Unless of course you have another notion of countability, in which case, its useless arguing.
Ah yes. How could I have missed that? Simple proof.
Thanks Daniel!
Could anyone offer some help?
Thanks.
Alright so I set out to prove this by induction:
And im stuck here. Could anyone offer some help? Please dont give me the full answer.
I would really appreciate some help.
Thanks!
haha funny
no problem
i over ate.
The last one is VERY nice!
Thanks ganesh!
Very nice.
Do you have any more similar to this one?
I was having a conversation with a friend of mine about absolute truth and mathematics. In this post I dont want to get into absolute truth, rather I'd like an explanation on the axioms of mathematics.
For example, are the axioms something that we take for granted or can the axioms actually be proved or do they derive or follow from something else? If its something that we take for granted then every result in mathematics would not be absolute but rather relative to the validity of its axioms?
I would really APPRECIATE if someone cleared this topic for me and gave their insights!
Thanks.
I dont get it?