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Nevertheless, I did finish the question with all of your help and now it's onto this week's assignment! I'll be back if I get stuck.
I hope so (not that you get stuck... that you post more interesting questions ) since i'm studying the same subject right now. Good work!
Yes, it's exactly the same argument but wrote in a less pedant manner
In my opinion, your demonstration in post#1 is not incomplete: i've read lots of (basic level) demonstration where "formal" things
are left to intuition and they're still considered good demonstration
For example consider the classical demonstration that sqrt2 is irrational:
we start with two proposition which are:
p: (a/b)^2=2
q: a and b are irreducible
and we prove that p AND q => NOT q;
but we have to assume q to be true, because in each case it's false we get back to a case in which is true.
so NOT q is false... so p AND q is false, but since q is true, p must be false.
But i've never (for God's sake) read a math's book explaining that in proposition in these terms.
ok thanks...
seems to me your (Anakin) third demonstration is right
call
p: AA=A;
p': A!=I;
q: detA=0
q': detA=1
we have that p=>(q OR q')
and q'=>NOT p' (or, equivalent, p'=>NOT q')
so p AND p' => (q OR q') AND (NOT q') = q
Do you agree?
EDIT: to be correct i think i should say:
q' AND p => not p' which is equivalent to p' => (NOT q' or NOT p) => NOT q'
because we assume p is true
sorry anakin
what is "A!" ?
Hi bobbym, thank you for your answer...
Wow! This is a nice formula! Thank you.
Have some idea about how to show EF=FG just using triangles properties?
i.e. we can show PFC=QFA in fact
(1) PD=QD;
(2) DA=DC;
(3) angle ADC is common
(1-2-3)=>PAD=DCQ, subtracting PFQD from both we get PFC=QFA.
I'm sure it can be shown in similar ways that FG=FE.
Hi guys! Yesterday I found a cool problem:
in the square ABCD, Q and P cut AD and DC in half. Calculate the ratio of areas BEFG/ABCD.
Now, despite this is correct, I find it a little complicated, and I think that some calculations could be avoided. For example, could you show that GF=FE without explicitly calculating it as I did? Or, how would you show that BF lies on BD?
In general, how would you solve the whole problem?
edit: maybe a mod could put a spoiler on my solution... i don't know how to do that
Hope you like this :-)
Thanks :-)
Unfortunately I have no idea of what that psi function is...
What do you think is not correct? My solution to the original problem or your closed form?
Hi guys, can you help me with this? (i'm sorry, i don't know how to write in code, maybe a mod can edit this :-) )
∑ (from k=1 to j) of : m/(m+1-k)
can you find a general formula for this series?
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OT:
The problem which led me to this other problem is this:
I have a bag with 100 blue balls;
to do one exchange means to take one random ball from the bag and put a red ball in;
how many average exchange does it take to have 50 red balls in the bag??
my reasoning is:
the average number of exchanges to add a red ball is given by
n=1/P, where P is the probability of taking a blue ball from the bag (P=#blueballs/#allballs)
since a missed tentative does not affect the number of blue balls in the bag, our number of exchanges is given by:
n=1+100/99+100/98+...+100/51 that you can obtain from the series above by putting m=100 and j=50
what do you think about it?
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sorry for the english, i'm from Italy... hope i've made it clear