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Hi LuisRodg,
I sympathise with you on this one. The reason is subtle. Here is why you can't use the circumference:
Section 1
If f(x)=k, where k is constant, then the area under the curve y = f(x) from x = a to x = b is rectangular and has the value k(b-a). The idea of integration extends this simple concept by defining a value for the area when f is any continuous function. The situation is typical of many where:
(a) Corresponding to an interval a <= x <= b, we wish to define a value
(say) of some quantity Q (in the usual case Q refers to area).
(b)
depends on the values of a continuous function q, andif q(x) = k where k is constant.
(c) For intuitive reasons we require that Q be additive, i.e. if the interval a <= x <= b is subdivided by points x1,x2,x3,......,xn,xn+1 where
a = x1 < x2 < x3 < ..... < xn < xn+1 = b
then
or writing
,(d) For intuitive reasons we require that if
for values of x in the interval
then
where
The particular case where
is the area under the curve y = q(x) from x = a to x = b is the mose familiar one. In all such cases we define:Section 2
In Section 1 we have described the situation in which the value
of a quantity Q is given by the integral:In practice the required integrand q(x) is usually found by seeking an approximate value of the form:
forFor example, in the case of the area under the curve y = f(x) the most obvious approximation for the area
of the rth strip is:(Call this "Equation 1")
and from this approximation f(x) emerges as the likely integrand.
Now if:
then writing
we have
(Call this "Equation 2")
Hence if we write
that is
then letting
we see that this agrees with equation 2 if, and only if (THIS IS THE VITAL POINT TO UNDERSTAND IN RELTAION TO WHY THE CIRCUMFERENCE METHOD IS NOT GOOD ENOUGH)
This shows how good the approximation to
must be; IT IS NOT ENOUGH that the error shoud tend to zero as and instead WE REQUIRE THATSection 3 - Surface Area
Denote by
the surface area swept over by the curve y = f(x) from x = a to x = b when it revolves through 360 degrees about the x-axis. Slicing up this surface area by planes perpendicular to the x-axis, we divide it into a number of bands. Let be the length of the arc of the curve (say from points P to Q) so that:The typical band of surface area is the area swept over by the arc PQ, if this area is denoted by
we have:It follows that:
This is the formula we are all familiar with.
Now, WHY WILL THE CIRCUMFERENCE METHOD NOT WORK in the above derivation?
Because the approximation:
forDOES NOT satisfy the criterion of Section 2.
You can check it quite simply for yourself. This is the key point.
With the circumference method will will NOT have
Which we MUST have for the integration to be valid.
Hi,
Thanks for your reply.
This is the method I have found:
Consider the Maclaurin expansion of:
this is the same as:
Which are both standard series and so this is equal to:
which is equal to:
Now substitute into this the value of:
With this value of x we have:
and so overall we arrive at:
as required.
The series is only convergent for:
which implies that m and n must be of the same sign - as expected to prevent the ln function from having a negative argument.
Hi,
Can anyone give me some hints as to how to go about solving the following:
Prove that if m and n are of the same sign then:
Thanks for any help. I know the method involves a Taylor expansion but of what function and about which point I can't find.
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