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**iman****Guest**

hi guys

what is euler's proof for fermat's theorem? whose is said:if p a prime number then p divide a^p-1 -1

**kylekatarn****Member**- Registered: 2005-07-24
- Posts: 445

a∈R?

a∈N?

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**iman****Guest**

(p,a)=1

a is prime rather than p

**kylekatarn****Member**- Registered: 2005-07-24
- Posts: 445

so you want a proof that:

∀p∈ℙ, ∃k∈ℕ : p=k[a^(p-1) -1]

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**iman****Member**- Registered: 2005-11-05
- Posts: 8

yes

please give me it's proof!

i'm waiting

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**kylekatarn****Member**- Registered: 2005-07-24
- Posts: 445

You can check the following sites. I think they have the proof you want:

http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/Proo … eorem.html

http://www.cut-the-knot.org/blue/Euler.shtml

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**iman****Member**- Registered: 2005-11-05
- Posts: 8

hi kylekatarn

it was the same proof i wanted!

thank you very much

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**kylekatarn****Member**- Registered: 2005-07-24
- Posts: 445

glad to be of help

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