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You are not logged in. #1 20050826 08:25:37
limits  try this one!Recently someone came up with a question on a calculus yahoo group that no one replied: Code:a(n)=(n!)^(1/n) ; n∈N Prove that Code:lim a(n) = +oo n>+oo ..any suggestions? #2 20050826 11:15:52
Re: limits  try this one!First, recall the theorem ( a(n) > 0 ) => ( (a(n))^(1/n) > 0 ) , where n > ∞ in both limits. (the proof of this is pretty straightforward, but I can do it if you like) Last edited by MathsIsFun (20050827 08:34:48) 