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....One day...ONE DAY, I will help those who need help !
Promise???
Q3:
x+y=1
x^3+y^3=31
Now
(x+y)^3=1=x^3+3x^2y+3xy^2+y^3=
=(x^3+y^3)+3xy(x+y)=31+3xy.1, so
3xy+31=1
3xy=-30
xy=-10,
Now, by x+y=1, we have y=1-x:
x(1-x)=-10
x1=(1-√41)/2
y1=1-x1
x2=(1+√41)/2
y2=1-x2
Q4:
Sorry Patrick.
You mean the definition of exponent?
If b is a positive integer integer, then
a^b=a.a.a.a. ... .a --->b times
For example a^1=a; a^2=a.a; a^3=a.a.a
By definition a^0=1;
If b is negative, we use:
I have a question.. Do you know what
means? If you do, I can't see how you can have problems calculating it manually.
But he is talking about 2^59, which is much more hard to compute.
Here is it:
2^59=576460752303423488
2^-59=1/(2^59)≈ 1.734723475976807094411924481391906738281e-18
aha!
I don't know any method. (which gives exact)
luca, I think you are getting 55 minutes, because you're losing too much presicion by this 10^16.
Pure symbolic answer is cutter.
No!
Can't be 55 minutes.
Let
please give some example.
What does "exponents" mean at all?
If it's a^x=b, then x=ln(b)/ln(a)
I think you are asking me.
First, MathsIsFun-perfect explanation.
Second- I'm actually not getting v at all. I'm assuming that the glass fills with v drops, so v/2 drops will be needed to full the half of the glass.
The answer must be>59 minutes, because in the beginning of the 60th minute in the glass will be
(v-1)/2 drops, where v is the number of drops, which full the glass
If you use that the number of drops, falled to the t-th minute (including the t-th minute) is:
#k+110
Let
n+3=x^3;
2n+3=y^3
Then
n=x^3-3;
2(x^3-3)+3=y^3
2x^3-3=y^3
The solutions of this diophantine equations are (1,-1) and (4,5)
So we have n=-2 and n=61.
59 minutes
Hi Daset.
Hi.
set theory, group theory, vector spaces, topology - not for me.
But see you.
2. Express 1+ln as a single logaritm.
I think it's
Very interesting question about the infinity.
My opinion is that infinity is not a number, so it can't be even or odd.
It doesn't have (even or odd) property.
An illustration of what happens:
f(n+1)= nf(n)+f(n-1)
f(n+2)= (n+1) f(n+1)+ f(n)
= ((n+1)n+1) f(n)+ (n+1) f(n-1)f(n+3)= (n+2) f(n+2) +f(n+1)
= ... I don't want to write it out
It will go bigger and bigger, besause in the expansion of f(x) there are 2 f-s.
You will get something as a Fibbonacci tree.
I'm starting to think that there won't be a simple function with this property. What about an integral?
3.99... is a number, like the others, and it has some interestion properties, which allow to "calculate" it:
I'm writing 3.(9) instead of 3.999... , because it doesn't use this "...".
For example:
1.101010(234)=1.101010234234234...,
Call 3.(9) C:
C=3.(9)
Now C has an infinite number of digits, but it also have a property, given with the definition:
C 10^n has the same fractional part as C, so we may exclude it, by substracting:
For example:
10C-C=39.(9)-3.(9)=36.(0)=36
C=36/9=4.
That kind of method is used for evaluating different kinds of numbers:
For example
But, just because the pattern is unrecognizable, we can't be sure that every number will appear only finite number of times.
I'm sure that every numbers occur infinitely, but there's a problem - this must be proved to be true.
You want pictures?
Here:
f(k)=k for k>=0?
But then f(3)=3f(2)+1=7...
I'm talking about the randomination of the numbers (for example pi).
Numbers in which all the combinations of digits are met, are called normal.
So you're disputing if pi is normal.
It is beleived that it is, but it's not proved.
Sorry. I use S for the area.
And tha angle between two straight lines is the smaller of the two (i think...).