Discussion about math, puzzles, games and fun. Useful symbols: ÷ × ½ √ ∞ ≠ ≤ ≥ ≈ ⇒ ± ∈ Δ θ ∴ ∑ ∫ • π ƒ -¹ ² ³ °
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I agree with Bob. My only criticism was a lack of clarity of the argument. I knew what you meant and it is okay as
I have shown that the product can be written
As 1/n tends to zero as n tends to infinity, I claim the product tends to zero times something finite and therefore to zero.
What's wrong with that?
Maybe you should use the fact that (1/n) is one of the terms of the product and all of the others are one or less.
Typing issues, sorry.
aybe. y posts often have things issing. But what would you like e to include?
(capital pi symbol is for 'the product of' )
i/n ≤1 => the product is less than 1
as n approaches infinity 1/n approaches zero = the limit tends to zero
Intuitively obvious that it approaches 0.
hw?i didnt undrstand