Discussion about math, puzzles, games and fun.   Useful symbols: ÷ × ½ √ ∞ ≠ ≤ ≥ ≈ ⇒ ± ∈ Δ θ ∴ ∑ ∫ • π ƒ -¹ ² ³ °

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BarandaMan
2013-05-23 04:11:57

#### bobbym wrote:

Hi;

1) It is not incredible.

2) I was a genius but then I got stupid.

3) Who is this bobby fellow? Do I know him?

I am glad you got it and soon you will be doing those yourself.

You are still a genius =d

bobbym
2013-05-23 03:42:16

Hi;

1) It is not incredible.

2) I was a genius but then I got stupid.

3) Who is this bobby fellow? Do I know him?

I am glad you got it and soon you will be doing those yourself.

BarandaMan
2013-05-23 00:35:41

This is the most incredible thing I have read on this forum. So immensely helpful, you are a genius. I had no idea even about such identities, and did not get to that stage alone either. Thank you SO much for taking the time to help me bobby.

bobbym
2013-05-22 21:02:39

Hi;

We are getting there just a few more steps:

Divide both sides by (1-n)

Now you use the identity:

We are done!

barandaman
2013-05-22 20:56:47

#### bobbym wrote:

Oh my  I think we are close.

So from there, I divide by -1 to get

-Pi(n-1)/P = nw/P

So -Pi/P = nw/(n-1)P, but there is a negative on the LHS which we do not want?

bobbym
2013-05-22 20:51:56

barandaman
2013-05-22 20:47:45

Yes, that is where I am at. At the latter stage, I really have no idea what to do. I tried working backwards from the eventual solution but I can still not see a link.

bobbym
2013-05-22 20:46:11

Hi;

Everything is going fine.

These are the two steps so far:

becomes

barandaman
2013-05-22 20:41:32

#### bobbym wrote:

No,  do not multiply by the P. Instead split the fraction up like this:

Ok thank you, I have now done that. The only next step I can see is to write (nw/P) + (Pi(1-n)/P)=0.

Then I am stuck again. I am really sorry I am not getting this faster I do apologise

bobbym
2013-05-22 20:35:15

No,  do not multiply by the P. Instead split the fraction up like this:

barandaman
2013-05-22 20:30:49

#### bobbym wrote:

Remember that has a zero on the right so it is really:

Yes! So we can multiply across to rid the P, but then we need to divide again by P to get the required expressions? So there is no need multiplying across?

bobbym
2013-05-22 20:28:54

Remember that has a zero on the right so it is really:

barandaman
2013-05-22 20:26:55

#### bobbym wrote:

Hold on you are going to fast. After the multiplication of the two terms you should have:

Yes, I have this!

bobbym
2013-05-22 20:23:19

Hold on you are going to fast. After the multiplication of the two terms you should have:

barandaman
2013-05-22 20:14:32

#### bobbym wrote:

Hi;

When I divide the first term by it, it becomes simply (Pi/P).
When I divide the second term by it, it becomes:   -((Pi-w)n)/P

You mean multiply instead of divide, and you are correct up to there.

Yes, sorry again. I do mean multiply.

What have I done wrong after? I really do not know what is going on, I have spent hours here.

Alternatively I try multiplying the P across from this step: So (Pi/P) -((Pi-w)n)/P = 0

To get Pi - (Pi-w)/n = 0. Then it leads to the same thing, as I divide by P later to try to get the Pi/P expression. These two ways seem equivalent.