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Thanks,bobbym,my friend liked the proof and i liked the link.
I think he wants proof of the composition law
No,i meant limit of f(g(x)) as x approaches a is equal to limit of f(y) as y approaches b.
Let's say a = 1.
Which is a counterexample.
My friend wants proof of this statement but i don't know how to prove it,can anyone help- If the limit of g(x) as x tends to a is b than the limit of f(g(x)) as x tends to a and the limit of f(y) as y tends to b is same