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Topic review (newest first)

Karimazer1
2013-04-11 07:58:06

What I specifically don't understand is:

1) Why:  When G(v1) = v1, with v1 and v2 uniformly distributed over [0,1] , WHY does E[v2 |v2 < v1] = (v1)/2  , i do not understand how they get v1 over 2.

2) Why: when we move from 2 to N people with distributions over [0,1], why does G(v1) = (v1)^N-1 ? I don't understand this definition. big_smile

Lastly, 3) So when G(v1) = (v1)^N-1, E[v2|v2<v1] = ((N-1)/N)*v1

Please please help me, ask if anything is unclear. Thank you SOOO MUCH.

Karimazer1
2013-04-11 07:48:42

Please help me!

This is easier I think;

economics.mit.edu/files/4874

IF you please go to (type in the top par) slide 30 out of 87, can you please read slide 31 and 32? This will help you understand (if you need it) my question, which is,

HOW do the examples on SLIDE 32 work? If you read 30&31 you will see the notation/definition, then there are two examples on slide 32 which I have tried for AGES to answer, and I do not get it, it is integration.

PLEASE  help me! Thank you SO much

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