You wish to close the thread? Okay, I have closed it.

]]>is error!

Hi endoftheworld,

I may be wrong, but I think stating that:

∫f(x)dx=F(x)+C

is an error, is itself a (logical) error. Because the indefinite integral is DEFINED AS the solution to the problem:

F'(x)=f(x)

It is the antiderivative, and what you gave is just the definition... does it make any sense to ask if is a definition right or wrong?

Saying that ∫f(x)dx=F(x)+C is an error seems to me like saying that it's wrong to put the ' to indicate the derivative...

I could have totally missed the point, maybe for example your paper says the defining the indefinite integral this way leads to some contradiction; in case i hope you can explain us.

]]>I haven't followed the text but the mathematics seems to simplify down to

(half way down the text)

and

(and at the end)

Since there are no given limits and 'a' is treated as a constant here, I don't see any contradiction.

The difference is just a constant of integration.

Bob

]]>Maybe you should wait until the OP comes back.

]]>I am sorry but my Russian is limited to some chess terms. Much worse than your English.

But I still have to say that my answer in post #2 is correct, notation wise. Therefore your statement in post#1 is not.

Who is the author of those papers you have cited?

]]>Why do you think that is an error?

]]>I live in Russia and I do not know many mathematical terms in English therefore I give the text in Russian

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