and since

for n ≠ 1, z ∈ Z, then every term reduces to zero, so the contour integral is zero... right?]]>Since the partial derivatives are continuous for all

and satisfy the CauchyRiemann equations and , is holomorphic on the complex plane.]]>Let z = ln(t), then dz = (1/t)dt. This transforms the integral to

Is this correct? And what would the graph of this look like?

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